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November 4

Spiritual Science. Rectifying Hypotheses

can i create my own hyperlink-web here of my findings and studies with this 'spirituality'? i believe people would be interested in these things. i simply would like to be recognized as the author. please tell me my options. i simply want this question answered, i will not waste my time. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Love me alway (talk • contribs) 03:55, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Sorry, but Wikipedia is not a venue for original research. — Lomn 04:05, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Such a compilation may be acceptable on your user page or in a user-space sub-page. See the Help for User Subpages and guidelines for allowable subpages. Again, Wikipedia is not the place to conduct original research; but if you are merely compiling and organizing links to other Wikipedia articles that you find useful, you can put it in your user space. This area has a little less regulation for content, as it is not technically part of the encyclopedia. As far as ownership, all content must be submitted under the Creative Commons and GFDL licenses - keep this in mind. You do not own your user-page or the content you submit to it. Finally, remember that even though Wikipedia offers you some freedom in the user-page space, Wikipedia is not your web host. Our goal is to write an encyclopedia; your user-page space is really supposed to help you (and others) to make contributions to actual encyclopedia articles. Nimur (talk) 05:58, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Submitting material to Wikipedia is unwise if you wish to be recognized as the author. You could easily be accused later of copying (your own text) from Wikipedia. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 16:16, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You can generally prove that you were the author of a particular thing by examining the "history" of the item in question. However, there is nothing whatever you can do to prevent someone from changing what you wrote - or copying it - or deleting it - or anything else. The open licensing of Wikipedia not only allows that - it actively encourages it. However, your own "findings" about something are completely unwelcome here. The goal is for all information to be generated in a neutral manner by reference to respected source material. Nothing you think up for yourself is allowed into any Wikipedia article...so what you suggest would likely be vehemently opposed from all sides! SteveBaker (talk) 22:13, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I interpreted "findings" to mean "things the OP found on the web and wants to link to." If the "findings" are actually synthesis of original research, then as Steve has pointed out, they should not be published on Wikipedia. We have a strong policy against publishing original research here. Nimur (talk) 17:44, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Name reactions in Chinese Wikipedia

Look at the articles about name reactions in Chinese Wikipedia. Why don't they translate the names into Chinese? --128.232.251.242 (talk) 10:37, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Chinese is in general iconic rather than sound based. The problem is with us using Chinese designations as they'd see it is us not using the proper icon but just a particular sound. Dmcq (talk) 10:54, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

But almost all the people do have a Chinese name, with almost no exceptions, for instance see zh:Category:Living people. Adolph Wilhelm Hermann Kolbe translates to zh:阿道夫·威廉·赫尔曼·科尔贝 in Chinese. So why don't they translate the name Kolbe in Kolbe electrolysis into Chinese? --128.232.251.242 (talk) 11:12, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I didn't see any specific guideline there about it. I guess their chemists must just find it easier. You could always ask on a talk page there. Dmcq (talk) 12:33, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

They don't translate the name because it's a proper noun specifically referring to the reaction. If it were also translated it would be a generic adjective of something. It looks odd because of the huge contrast between roman characters, but it's standard convention in most types of math and science to hold the names. Just because it was able to translate "Kolbe" doesn't mean it came out as "Kolbe"; in its eyes it translated "kolbe", which is a very important distinction. This all happens a whole lot in Japanese, too. Why don't we use their characters for their historical persons or theorems? It's "mostly" easier to move into a lettered format than from that into complex characters. I don't know the term of it in traditional Chinese, but it's "Romanji" in Japanese, literally the romanization of the real language so that most anyone in the world can try to pronounce a word. A nod to European influence via early trading routes into the long-established Eastern cultures. ♪ daTheisen (talk) 15:53, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think the reason is really because people are lazy and there are many different (conflicting) complex standards for transliterating foreign names. PRC, Hong Kong and Taiwan all have different transliteration schemes with different characters, which editors would need to deal with using templates, which has quite a learning curve. It's nowhere near as simple as romaji for Japanese, and it's further compounded by the great firewall of China (although I heard Wikipedia's been unblocked?). --antilived^{T | C | G} 06:17, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In fact our own languages reference desk would probably be best at WP:RD/L. My guess is that people read and write about chemistry but names of people and places are things one says. Even so you will quite often see some special name translated by meaning rather than sound into English. Dmcq (talk) 15:42, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's a myth that Chinese is iconic rather than sound-based. All languages are phonetic, but not all languages have a phonemic writing system. John Riemann Soong (talk) 16:39, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

All spoken languages are phonetic. Sign languages are not, and it is possible to have an entirely written language which is not simply a representation of a spoken language. In fact, I gather written literary Chinese (Literary Sinitic) is quite close to this [1]. 86.142.224.71 (talk) 18:38, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Which is what I meant. It can be pronounced very differently in different dialects. Dmcq (talk) 22:27, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Not only pronounced differently: it is a different language to most (all?) of the 'dialects'. Children who have a mother tongue other than Mandarin (and even those who have Mandarin?) have to learn it in order to write. 86.142.224.71 (talk) 22:37, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Classical Chinese may be helpful here Nil Einne (talk) 10:01, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Excellent. And it links to Vernacular Chinese, which is the one that children have to learn Mandarin to be able to read. 86.142.224.71 (talk) 16:28, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

universities

can i known what are the top universities in uk for m pharmacy —Preceding unsigned comment added by Nagtej (talk • contribs) 13:39, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Sorry, I'm not sure how I can help. The same way that Wikipedia isn't a source or original research, we also can't try to create new ideas using information from Wikipedia. We hold to a standard of neutral point of view in articles, so there would be no way to to make guesses like that even if we thought we should! Good luck... ♪ daTheisen (talk) 15:57, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The QUB School of Pharmacy has been rated as the top Pharmacy School in the UK in the 'Times Good University Guide 2010' [www.qub.ac.uk/schools/SchoolofPharmacy/dl/] and The University of Nottingham in the 2006 Times Good University Guide [www.nottingham.ac.uk/pharmacy/undergraduates/index.php]. Tracking down the mentioned guide will surely lead to others. 75.41.110.200 (talk) 16:13, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

UCAS (Universities & Colleges Admissions Service) can help you with information on undergraduate degree programmes at UK universities and colleges.Cuddlyable3 (talk) 16:10, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yet another best of list at the guardian. --Tagishsimon (talk) 16:14, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See here for the Times Good University Guide for Pharmacology and Pharmacy. --Tango (talk) 17:53, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Was the discovery of evolution "inevitable" in the 19th Century? Why

I visited an aquarium last week, and one of the exhibits said that because of changes in scientific thinking the discovery of evolution was "inevitable" in the 19th Century. It mentioned that Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace discovered it independently, and said that even if they had not seen it the theory's time had come and someone else would have done soon. Is this true, or if it was not for these two discoverers could we still not understand evolution today? If it is true what changes in thinking and previous discoveries made the theory of evolution inevitable? As a side question do you "discover", "invent", or "author" a theory - I don't know quite what to write! -- Q Chris (talk) 15:01, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's hard/impossible to speculate whether anything that already happened was "inevitable" but I'm fairly certain that someone else would have struck upon the idea before too long. A lot of the original theory was essentially "Wait a minute... That animal looks a lot like that other animal" and you don't need a rich guy or a traveler to notice that. The Great man theory is probably relevant here, but essentially it's not really possible to factually answer your question. ~ Amory (u • t • c) 15:14, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Oh, and as for your last question, you can say "constructed" or "formulated." ~ Amory (u • t • c) 15:16, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It was inevitable if you consider that genetic studies were independent of evolution. While the early studies didn't know anything about genes or DNA, they were tracing patterns of inheritance from parent to child, such as colors of kernels of corn and eye color in mice. Eventually, someone would have to recognize that traits were being passed from parent to child. As soon as someone were to stumble upon mutation, evolution would be evident. -- kainaw ™ 15:20, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The idea of evolution generally was well-known and well-discussed well before Darwin and Wallace. The idea of natural selection being the mechanism of evolution probably would have come out at some point if both of those two had been hit by a train before their time. This distinction is rather important. It is not a matter of saying "this animal looks like this one"—people had already been doing that for a long time, even in the scientific sphere (see, e.g. Erasmus Darwin, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck, and less scientifically, Robert Chambers, etc.).

There were a lot of people thinking along similar lines at the time—it was definitely "in the air". Darwin is especially well-known because he articulated it in a rather careful form, with lots of evidence, and with all the power of his already-established scientific name attached to it. (Wallace was, in this sense, very much at a disadvantage.) He had powerful friends who assured that the theory would be taken seriously and given attention within the scientific community and not dismissed as just a variation on Lamarck or as just political claptrap (Cf. Vestiges of the Natural History of Creation).

As for the distinction between "discoveries", "inventions", "authors"—it's a great question, one that professional historians have actually argued quite a lot about. It depends on your conception of authorship itself, and on your conception of what is to be authored. Are theories hanging out there "in the world", waiting to be discovered? Or is the process of articulating a theory a creative act as well as an objective one? I tend to think the answer is somewhere in between—there is a "core" reality to be "discovered", but the aspects of it that get written about, and the ways in which they are formulated in human language, and made convincing and compelling, are a definitely parts of an authorial intervention—an "invention", one could say. This is much easier to see as time goes on—Darwin's theory of natural selection, as he articulated it, contains quite a bit of "nature" in it, but it is very much a work of the particular man himself, and his formulation of it, his preoccupations, his way of arguing it, all reflect that very strongly. --Mr.98 (talk) 15:28, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(ec, and now mostly redundant. But I wrote it, so you better read it ;-): "Evolution" was evident quite a while before Darwin and Wallace from looking at fossils. See history of evolutionary thought. Erasmus Darwin described evolution in the late 19th century, and Lamarck formulated his idea of species evolving to better meet environmental conditions in 1809. What Darwin (and Wallace) added was the mechanism of natural selection working on variations of inherited traits, not the idea of evolution itself. --Stephan Schulz (talk) 15:32, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I would argue that yes, evolution was an inevitable 'discovery'. It's extremely elementary that weak things are removed over time and robust things remain. It applies to everything across the spectrum, from the erosion of mountains, to biological features, to ruling powers. I suppose it appeared when it did as rationality was starting to question the religious hegemony of past centuries, not because the idea itself was necessarily of profound importance. Vranak (talk) 16:09, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think you underestimate the difficulty of making the scientific case (ignore the religious stuff for a moment—it mattered for some, not for others). Remember that when Darwin proposed evolution there was no good model for biological heredity at all, a relatively new knowledge of the fossil record, and no consensus over the age of the Earth. This makes making a compelling scientific argument about natural selection rather difficult. If the rate of change is too slow, and the Earth is too young, then it doesn't work. Without a model of heredity that allows for things like mutations, you don't have any way for speciation to take place. These are non-trivial concerns. There were plenty of people before Darwin who waived their hands and said "oh this is a common principle to all things so it applies to humans" (again, see Robert Chambers), but 1. they were more often than not wrong (because there are a lot of candidate "common principles"), and 2. they were totally uncompelling (because just because something works in one arena doesn't mean it works in another). Even in Darwin's case, it was not totally compelling—most scientists did not accept natural selection as the mechanism of evolution until long after he had died and the modern evolutionary synthesis was developed (some 70 years after Origin of Species!). (And this latter point has nothing to do with religion—they accepted evolution in general.) --Mr.98 (talk) 16:32, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If you read The Origin of Species it's quite clear that Darwin wasn't proposing an original idea. Rather he did a lot of careful synthesis and research in order to champion an idea. The Origin gave a confused set of ideas clarity and made it obvious how and why they had to be true. I think you can divide scientific "discoveries" into three kinds;

"wtf is this" discoveries, finding something, such as a fossil or a strange unexpected residue, eg Ardi or teflon
"eureka" discoveries, a sudden stroke of genius like the Dirac equation and Archimedes' principle
"synthesis" "discoveries" like the theory of evolution or plate tectonics. These are the best and hardest.

In the popular imagination, people think science is largely of the "eureka" type, which are actually probably the rarest. -Craig Pemberton (talk) 16:45, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I like that classification, and I will make the phrase "wtf discoveries" part of my working vocabulary ;-) --Stephan Schulz (talk) 18:10, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See Multiple discovery and Stigler's law. Fences&Windows 03:40, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

self-ionisation of glacial acetic acid

How does it compare to water? How does the entropy contribution of the reaction change? What about enthalpy of self-ionisation? John Riemann Soong (talk) 16:37, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Current and time threshold

I'm trying to design a circuit that activates a transistor when a photodiode has been illuminated at a certain intensity for a certain time, but only when at least a certain current is produced non-stop during that time, e.g. 5µA for 50ms. Essentially I want it to start a "stopwatch" the instant the current rises above 5µA, and reset that stopwatch the instant the current drops below 5µA. If the timer reaches 50ms before it is reset, a monostable LMC555 fires and holds a transistor (logic-level MOSFET or Darlington BJT - I haven't decided yet) high for about half a second. Ideally the entire procedure would be analogue, since I want to keep everything small and simple, and I also want it to use as little power as possible so I can run it off a minimal battery like a button cell. I'd also like to keep it as small as possible physically.

I've brainstormed about this for a while, but I can't figure out any good, simple ways to do it. Any ideas? --Link ^(t•c•m) 16:40, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

First you need to convert the photodiode current into a voltage with either a a current to voltage op amp circuit or just a resistor. The o/p of the I_V converter needs to go to some sort of Schmitt trigger circuit with its threshold set to the equivalent of your desired photodiode current. This will give you a high level out when the current is above threshold. Now you need to use the rising edge of that pulse to start your timer and the falling edge to stop your timer. For the timer circuit I would tend to go for a gated square wave oscillator and a counter, but there must be other ways. Trouble is all the circuitry described probably wouldnt run under 5v. Not sure if CMOS would work reliably at 1.5V--79.67.31.17 (talk) 18:31, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 20:50, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]
In the circuit shown the transistor conducts for 0.5s after the photodiode has been lit for 50mS and can conduct longer if the photodiode is lit longer. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 21:05, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Cheers! I'll check it out later (I'm not exactly awake yet). --Link ^(t•c•m) 09:22, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Looks like a nice simple circuit that should work well. However, I think the photo diode is shown connected the wrong way round in this circuit as it needs to be used in the photoconductive (not photovoltaic) mode. Also the OP wanted operation from a single cell (1.5v) which is far more complex unless a little inverter is used. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 79.75.83.17 (talk) 15:04, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I've actually decided to go about this a bit differently (using a microcontroller) since I need high noise immunity. I did notice the photodiode was connected the wrong way around. Also, I was actually planning to use a 3V button cell - there is very very little that happily runs off 1.5V. :) --Link ^(t•c•m) 17:40, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

reactivity esters v. carboxylic acids

Why are carboxylic acids classified as less reactive than esters? Alkoxides tend to be worse leaving groups than hydroxides, right? (Except methoxide, which has a lower pKa). Alkyl groups tend to be electron donating, right..? (Or do they also delocalise some of the negative charge on the ethoxy ester oxygen?) John Riemann Soong (talk) 16:51, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

How do you mean "less reactive" anyways? In terms of cleaving the C-O bond? Hydroxide is a worse leaving group than any alkoxide, so clearly in terms of -COOR -> -CO + OR if R = alkyl is more favorable than R = H. In other ways; for example in terms of reactivity with bases, carboxylic acids are more reactive. You need to define what reaction you are trying to do! --Jayron32 21:12, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Acyl substitution, naturally. (Acid-base reactions are trivial...) How is -OH a bad leaving group compared to an alkoxide? The pKa of water is 15.7; the pKa of most alcohols is 16-18. (Save phenols) John Riemann Soong (talk) 21:41, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Alkoxides are more stable ions because they are "softer"... in other words, there is greater dispersion of electric charge across a larger ion. That makes it more kinetically favorable; i.e. it sticks around longer. There's more going on here than just looking at the pKa, which is basically "H+ affinity" and not much else. Thermodynamically, it is harder to remove a proton from an alcohol than from water (and thus, conversely, it is more energetically favorable to protonate an alkoxide anion than to protonate hydroxide). So, if one considers the controlling factor in the reaction to be "Le Chatelier's principle" ONLY (that is, the protonation of the leaving group driving the equilibrium towards completion), then it would appear that hydroxide would make a better leaving group. However, there are other factors to consider beside that; for the equilibrium constant for the leaving group process (i.e. RCOOR <-> RCO⁺ + ^-OR). The more OR is made, the faster it will be quenched by availible H⁺ ions. The difference in the pKa's is probably not nearly as great as the difference in the K's for that process, for example if R = H vs. R = alkyl. You have a complex mix of processes here, and the kinetics of the slowest step is the driving force here. Protonation of the anion is a relatively fast step, so the difference in the pKa's is unlikely to be a major factor here. --Jayron32 05:58, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

fetus/mother sharing

When a pregnant women has an orgasm does the fetus experience pleasure or the orgasm as well? 71.100.13.177 (talk) 16:58, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The umbilical cord doesn't contain any nerves, so the fetus couldn't experience the orgasm itself. They might get some of the hormones that are released during orgasm (oxytocin, prolactin and maybe some others), which might give the fetus the same feelings of pleasure and relaxation following the orgasm. --Tango (talk) 17:59, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The main endogenous opioid associated with orgasm is β-endorphin, which can cross the placental barrier, so it seems plausible that the fetus would experience the opiate-high elements of orgasm, but that's a long way from the full and complex emotional and physical experience. In any case, I seriously doubt that the answer is known. --Sean 18:14, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Antabus

In the film Skavabölen pojat, the family's father, already becoming slightly alcoholic when his sons are in pre-school age, is shown having taken an Antabus pill to try to cure his alcoholism. He shows his sons his bare stomach, where this Antabus pill has supposedly lodged itself firmly enough to be outwardly visible and tangible. A decade later, desperate to drink more alcohol, he is shown to surgically remove this pill from his stomach, so he can continue drinking without having any nauseous effects. Now I have never had to take Antabus myself, and I hope I never will. So therefore my question is out of scientific curiosity: The film gives the impression that once an Antabus pill is taken, it permanently lodges itself in the person's stomach, never dissolving. This is entirely unlike I have come to understand pills work - they should dissolve within days. How is this? How do Antabus pills work? Are they really permanent or have I just misunderstood the film's hints? JIP | Talk 19:59, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The Disulfiram article has information about the pharmacology of Antabuse. The effect is most certainly not permanent. The film appears to have taken some liberties with the mechanism of action. --- Medical geneticist (talk) 20:26, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

According to our article, the half life of Antibus (disulfiram) is somewhere around 60-120 hours, and it can have some effect for up to two weeks. Red Act (talk) 20:30, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Opting out of evolution in biology classes

Currently, many high-school biology classes allow parents to opt their students out of dissections if they are morally or religiously opposed to them. Why isn't a similar system put in place for the teaching of evolution? --J4\/4 <talk> 20:24, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Is studying evolution banned by any religion? I'm fairly sure actual dissection is banned by the religion itself, not just the parents. Vimescarrot (talk) 20:30, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In some schools, it is. In my California public high school in the 1990s, you could opt out of the evolution unit if your parents wanted you to. You had to go sit in study hall for those two weeks, or whatever length of time it was, while the rest of us stared at pictures of horses' feet. I'm not sure if anyone in my class did it; if it did, it was only one or two. (It was a very boring unit, incidentally—not nearly as racy as they had let on—but not as boring as being in study hall, probably.) I imagine that this issue, like all U.S. school-curricula issues, varies not only state by state, but probably even school district by school district. --Mr.98 (talk) 20:31, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There is in the UK. I once helped out on a school trip that involved a visit to a natural history museum and we had to be careful what we said because one of the children wasn't allowed to learn about evolution (there was only one exhibit that we had to gloss over, the rest was pretty safe). --Tango (talk) 20:32, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Schools are flexible, and should be. As a seven year old in the UK I adamantly came out as an atheist and refused to take part in anything related to Christmas or nativity because I said it was religious propaganda. I recall I was spared learning Carols and poems about Jesus and given parts of Old Possums book of cats to memorise instead. I doubt the school even bothered to check with my parents, and fifteen months later I softened and agreed to play Noah in a play (which didn't bother me because no one actually believes in Noah). I guess in an ideal world children should be able to opt themselves out of anything as soon as they know enough about it to feel they could make a decision. But I am far from sure that parents should be allowed to opt their children out of things, especially not for bad reasons. To really put the cat amongst the pigeons my reading of this as a Christian is that Genesis clearly explains "knowledge of Good and Evil corrupts" which is why I don't want my own children to see explicit violence or nasty but there is no forbidden fruit on a tree of "knowledge of blindingly obvious consensus science" --BozMo talk 20:42, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

IMO all teaching should be done in a neutral manner so there should be no need for anyone to opt out. Knowledge is always good, it is the application of knowledge that can be bad. --Tango (talk) 20:50, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Not clear what "knowledge" is then, and when it demerges from experience. "Knowledge of how extreme pain feels"? even if you do disagree with Einstein about weapon technology... --BozMo talk 21:04, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Personally, I'd say that one can be a well educated adult without having engaged in dissections. It takes some effort to get the same insights from books and such, but it is certainly possible. On the other hand, I would say that one's education is grossly deficient if you don't understand the basic principles of evolution and the evidence for it. In my opinion, that's true even if one chooses not to accept evolution as factually true. It would be like not learning the atomic theory of matter, or not learning the structure of the solar system. Sure one can survive without that knowledge, but there is rather something incomplete with an education that skips over such basic issues. So, personally, I would resists efforts to allow students to opt-out of evolution discussions on the grounds that it really deprives the student of an important and basic science understanding. I would also point out that evolution is included on many standardized science tests, including those required for high school graduation in some areas. Dragons flight (talk) 20:52, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I kind of agree but does that mean I can also force them to learn Shakespeare or force them to learn to swim "one's education is grossly deficient"? I am just not sure I have the right to force it on people... --BozMo talk 21:00, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You can object to the whole principle of compulsory education if you want, but you won't find many people that agree with you (other than children that hate school!). --Tango (talk) 21:35, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

No I am not amongst these folk Compulsory_education#Criticism but really we are talking compulsory syllabus, not compulsory education. You could drop biology 6 years younger than you were allowed to drop Latin at my school. How much evolution is really core education versus say Shakespeare? Pre genetics the careers advice used to be "if you can do maths and want to, do maths, if you can do maths and want to do science do Physics, if you cannot do maths and want to do science do Chemistry, if you cannot do science but want to do science do biology". Clearly I am outraged at having to do so much Latin, but I don't want biology to become the new Latin either... :) --BozMo talk 22:01, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Evolution is a more useful concept than Shakespeare. You can use it to find homologues, trace human migrations, do gene mapping, discover drugs, discover gene interactions, model ecological populations, disruptions and ecological balances. Plus, advanced evolution involves a lot of mathematical modelling not unlike that of say, finance. Evolution >> literature. John Riemann Soong (talk) 05:47, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I don't see how you could practically skip the evolution section. As somebody said, nothing in biology makes sense except in light of evolution -- what would you do for the rest of the course? Looie496 (talk) 21:50, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There are two counteracting principles here:

Firstly, one cannot intelligently criticize something unless you've learned a fair bit about it first. Children of parents who disbelieve in evolution are precisely the ones who NEED to be taught it because they'll never learn it any other way - and they'll be incapable of making their own minds up about it as adults unless they were taught it while their minds were still flexible enough to absorb it. That cuts both ways - I don't think the children of atheists should be able to prevent their kids doing at least a basic comparative religion class. That there are religions is a fact - and understanding a reasonable range of them is well worth-while. So long as the class sticks to the observable facts (in both cases) - there should be no problem.

However, we have a problem. Kids are only in school for so long - and their capacities for maintaining focus is somewhat limited. So we can't go in and teach them absolutely everything about everything. Some things have to take a higher priority. Fundamentals - math, literacy, language, basic science - all have to have a certain amount of time assigned to them, it's just unavoidable. The amount of time left in the school year after the essentials determines how much exposure to these other topics one gets. It's crucial that they see a little of everything that the world of knowledge has to offer - but spending (say) an entire year on evolution or on comparative religion is far too much.

IMHO, parent's opinions should count for very little indeed. It's flat out not right that a child should be forcably prevented from learning things that their idiot parents failed to grasp. The entire reason that most countries in the world have mandatory education for children is because their parents can't be trusted to do the right thing otherwise. Being able to choose not to have their children learn evolution (or comparative religion) for a few weeks is no more defensible than allowing parents to not have their children be educated at all.

If you allow parents to cherry-pick the courses they want their kids to attend - on religious grounds, or any other grounds for that matter - then pretty soon you're going to have parents who adhere to Sharia law deciding that their female children should not be educated at all past the age of 8. As a nation, we come to a consensus as to what needs to be taught - and everyone should be taught it.

SteveBaker (talk) 22:02, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Apart from the "as a nation" bit which we are clearly not, I find it hard to disagree with any of this. Up until the child can make an informed refusal they should be taught everything. How much they get taught to make an informed refusal is subjective. --BozMo talk 22:05, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'm not aware of any schools in the US that allow you to opt-out of dissection based on religious reasons. Given separation of church and state, it won't be an issue they can make lightly. Most schools either fail the students for that assignment, or make the assignment "free" so there is no grade for it. — The Hand That Feeds You:^Bite 22:22, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The reason I mentioned it is because it is that way at my (public) school. If a student brought in a signed note from a parent or guardian explaining why dissections are against his/her moral or religious principals, the student would be given an alternate assignment instead. ----J4\/4 <talk> 23:10, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Where I grew up, one could get out of the 9th grade dissections for any reason whatsoever (not just religious ones). However, one wasn't allowed to opt-out of the dissections in the AP Bio class (typically 12th grade), but then the AP class was optional while the 9th grade class was mandatory. I don't recall what they did about grades in 9th grade, but I don't recall it being a big deal. Dragons flight (talk) 00:33, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Another question that this raises is, what other subjects could one opt out of? Sex education is the common one—again for moral reasons. Whether that is something that the parent should get to determine or not is a pretty push-button topic. What about select episodes in US history that one doesn't like the presentation of? Certain objectionable books? It's a rather nasty slippery slope to go down—which is why school boards usually set overall standards that are held to, rather that considering it on a case-by-case basis. In any case, there is no quick-and-easy answer, as it is not just a question about evolution, but about the rights of parents v. the rights of states, the goals of compulsory education, and so forth. --Mr.98 (talk) 23:16, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The objection against dissection runs deeper than simply "religion versus science" and I think it's useful to make note of that. Dissecting animals involving killing things. They're "just" animals, but let's not sugarcoat it. Living things are being killed so kids can look at them. Whether it stems from religious or personal morality, the concept that killing things - any things - is a "bad thing" is extremely ancient and cannot be lightly cast aside. Being able to poke around inside a dead animal to learn anatomy is arguably a good enough justification for doing it, but it's hardly a foregone conclusion - only a tiny percentage of the kids who partake in it will ever make any use of that knowledge ever again. Don't get me wrong; I did it and I had no qualms about it, but I'm honestly not sure how much I actually learned from it (that I didn't concurrently or later learn from models, videos, books, etc.) My later studies - which included studying human bodily remains - didn't hinge upon splitting open a frog and a worm in grade 10 Biology. Matt Deres (talk) 01:50, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

But that's precisely the point. While 99% of students seemed to have gained nothing from it - and some of them were grossed-out, maybe had to run to the bathroom to puke, maybe just couldn't bring themselves to do it, maybe took that cue to become Vegans - the other 1% may have become so inspired by the process that they decided to become surgeons or to enter the field of anatomy, biology, zoology or whatever. The problem is that we don't know who those 1% are until we have them dissect something - and we need that early inspiration in order to get kids to be passionate about something (either way - for or against). The experience of doing it might well turn other kids off - but that's really the point of it. I bet nearly everyone who did that (we dissected earthworms and a cow's eye) remembers that hour of Biology class more vividly than almost any other day of their entire school lives. It's not about teaching anatomy any more than measuring the period of a pendulum in Physics classes is about learning that oh-so-not-vital length-versus-time equation that 99% of them will never use or remember again. It's an experience that no parent is ever likely to teach them...and that's precisely why you shouldn't be able to opt-out. That's also why we need to keep metalwork & woodwork class, art class and music classes, if kids never get to experience those things - how will they know whether they are passionate about them? SteveBaker (talk) 13:07, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's hard to prove a counter-factual, though. How do we know that 1% wouldn't have found another path there? (Or that your 99% weren't so turned off by it that they decided science class wasn't for them?) Have we really proven in a rigorous way that dissection actually is a useful pedagogical tool, to the point where those who believe that it is just "unnecessary" killing of animals should be ignored? I don't know the answer, but that seems at issue here—you're assuming the memory of the spectacle itself translates into good pedagogy, but I'm not sure that necessarily follows. (Incidentally, my favorite take on classroom dissection is this one.) --Mr.98 (talk) 15:21, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Steve, you seem to have missed the central point of my post and commented solely on my anecdote. Killing things is usually seen as a "bad thing" unless the killing is justified. My point is that the line between "not justified" and "justified" is not the same for everyone at all times and people need to keep that in mind before they go off half-cocked about the choice regarding dissection being a "religion vs science" thing.

Your comments about the impact high school dissection has on kids can also swing both ways - I would wager that for every kid that got turned on to biology by doing a dissection you would find at least an equal number of students who were traumatized at the very thought and therefore failed to go on to contribute to the studies of cladistics or ethology. While you and I obviously think back to those days as ones of discovery, there are a great number of people who think back to it and shudder at the very thought. Matt Deres (talk) 22:21, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Bears can play hockey?

I watched an interesting video on the internet that shows a team of bears playing hockey. This is the internet so it can quite possibly be fake, but it at least looks real. What do you think? http://video.yahoo.com/network/100284668?v=6255496&l=4418225 if it says "video not available", bypass your cache. -- penubag (talk) 22:07, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, according to ABC News, bears playing ice hockey is a standard stunt in the Russian circus.[2] Red Act (talk) 22:30, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That's crazy. I'd love to go see this in person! -- penubag (talk) 01:25, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Bypass your cache?218.25.32.210 (talk) 01:23, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

WP:Bypass your cache -- penubag (talk) 01:24, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I remember seeing a hockey-playing bear at a Budapest circus, so it isn't just Russians (or it was a Russian traveling circus) Rmhermen (talk) 03:05, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Are they playing hockey or just holding sticks and hitting pucks? DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 03:44, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Are we talking ice hockey then? Nil Einne (talk) 09:26, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There are some bears in Boston and Providence that can play ice hockey. --Mark PEA (talk) 17:41, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

They play football in Chicago.—Preceding unsigned comment added by Googlemeister (talk • contribs)

In Chicago, you can watch wolves playing hockey. Edison (talk) 15:36, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's amazing how good they are. They're completing passes and everything, and actively trying to score goals. They seem reasonably comfortable ice-skating around in a bipedal fashion.

White team needs a new goal-keeper, though. APL (talk) 17:48, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Could it be a combination of some real bears, people in costumes, computer graphics, and skillful editing? Today one sees lots of TV commercials with animals doing fake things. There are about 39 edits or cut between shots averaging every 3.5 seconds seconds in this 2 minute video, which would be an opportunity to insert closeups of fakery, or to intercut shots from different times to make it look like continuous play. It is also very fuzzy for a slick production with that much editing. This is no camcorder shot. Edison (talk) 15:43, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

To me the fuzziness looks like it's come from many generations of video tape duplication. Presumably this was on TV at some point. Since there's a live audience, and this is supposedly a common stunt in Russia, I doubt that it's literally fake. I'm sure the editing improves it, but the crowd is loving it, so even without editing it must be pretty good. APL (talk) 20:43, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Harmful beryllium oxide in ceramic insolators

I was reading the article about microwave ovens here in Wikipedia, and there was written that some microwave oven magnetrons have ceramic insulators with a piece of harmful beryllium oxide (beryllia) added. How will a person know if the ceramic insulators with a piece of beryllia is a bit broken? Will the microwave oven keep on working if it is a little broken (or a little crushed)? If the ceramic insolator should be a liitle broken or crushed, can the dust from it get inside the cooking chamber (or outside of the microwave oven)?JTimbboy (talk) 22:46, 4 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The OP probably refers to this text in the article Microwave oven: Some magnetrons have ceramic insulators with a piece of beryllium oxide (beryllia) added—these ceramics often appear somewhat pink or purple-colored. The beryllium in such oxides is a serious chemical hazard if crushed and ingested (eg, inhaling dust). In addition, beryllia is listed as a confirmed human carcinogen by the IARC; therefore, broken ceramic insulators or magnetrons should not be handled. This is obviously only a danger if the microwave oven becomes physically damaged (ie, cracked ceramics) or upon opening and handling the magnetron directly, and as such should not occur during normal usage. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 01:37, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

November 5

A sculptor who works in dark matter

How would such a sculptor go about it? What would the results look like? or, if invisible, is there any way one could perceive the results?

Thanks

Adambrowne666 (talk) 00:08, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Nobody even knows for sure what dark matter is, so there is no way anyone could make a sculpture out of it. --Tango (talk) 00:17, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

True. Let's play with the idea though, based more on current theories than on what it is for sure. Adambrowne666 (talk) 00:20, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think there are two main theories - either it is regular matter that is just too cold to radiate light (MACHOs), in which case it would be sculpted in the same way as any other regular matter, or it is "weakly interacting massive particles" (WIMPs) which means particles which only interact with other matter through gravity and the weak interaction (which is only really significant in radioactivity). Such matter couldn't be sculpted at all, since there would be no way to hold the dark matter together. --Tango (talk) 01:00, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Were those acronyms intentional? Seems too unlikely to be a mere conincidence... (MACHO and WIMP, fight!) --antilived^{T | C | G} 05:57, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Most theories of dark matter would have it be more like a gas (weakly interacting) than a solid, in which case there would be nothing to sculpt. Dragons flight (talk) 00:22, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

And with so little interaction with normal matter, dark matter could not be confined in a gas tank, or cut with with a blade. The only way to control it is with gravity. In any case most of the matter on earth does not give off light, and could be considered dark matter. Graeme Bartlett (talk) 00:46, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ok, but ferrofluid isliquid, and can be sculpted, in a manner of speaking. Say we use gravity to shape dark matter. What then? Is there any way of showing off our work? Adambrowne666 (talk) 01:01, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If you want to use gravity to hold it together you would need to work and store it in a zero-gee environment. If the dark matter is just regular matter then it would reflect light so you could show it off in the same way as any other sculpture. If it is just weakly interacting then I don't think there is any way it could be directly seen. --Tango (talk) 01:05, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Sounds a bit like it would have to be Conceptual art. AlmostReadytoFly (talk) 09:17, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Most art galleries today don't show off dark-matter sculptures. Also, many artists fail to be inspired by it as a working material. Bus stop (talk) 15:56, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, probably right, Tango; there's no way it could be directly seen - aside from the twisted gravity field, is there any way its presence and form could be detected by a person in the same room? what equipment would such a person need to perceive the art? Adambrowne666 (talk) 09:46, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If it were heavy enough they could detect the gravity directly, especially in they were otherwise in zero-gee. If it were lighter then watching the paths of slow moving ball bearings as you throw them around the room might allow you to detect it, or some kind of smoke generator. --Tango (talk) 15:30, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Question - assuming the sculptor can assemble this huge amount of dark matter (mass of a small asteroid if you want it to deflect the path of a ball bearing), how do they keep it in one place ? What stops it dropping straight through the floor ? Gandalf61 (talk) 15:40, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That's why it needs to be stored in zero-gee. Something that heavy would generally accelerate very slowly, so it shouldn't be too difficult to keep it central in the space-borne art gallery by moving the gallery to compensate for its movements. --Tango (talk) 19:52, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks, all - it's for a story I'm working on, and I think with a bit, or a lot, of fudging, I can work with this stuff to get something fun. Adambrowne666 (talk) 22:46, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Speculation: Perhaps you could assemble a ball of dark matter 1 decimeter across yet weighing millions of tonnes. This should have a measurable gravitational field. Or maybe it could condense into a streamer of dark matter held together by gravity, yet kept elongated by mixtures of velocities along the stream. Maybe you can sense the presence of darkmatter by its effect on dust or smoke in the air. A fast moving stream may have a gravitomagnetic effect and pull nearby matter in the same direction. Graeme Bartlett (talk) 06:27, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

What cognitive changes take place at birth?

There's a lot of controversy about when exactly killing a fetus/baby becomes murder. One common belief is that it's at (or possibly a little after) the moment of birth. This would only make sense if there are significant cognitive changes caused by being born. I wouldn't find it at all surprising, but it seems strange that I've never heard anything about it one way or another. Is it just impossible to test? If not, what changes take place? Is it generally considered by people in that field to be something necessary for sentience? — DanielLC 00:09, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I don't think there are any significant cognitive changes that abruptly occur at birth. However, at birth the baby goes from receiving nutrition and oxygen through the umbilical cord to breathing independently and requiring oral food. I know some people place special significance on that first breath, and on the independence from the systems of the mother. I don't think many people worry about sentience per se. Dragons flight (talk) 00:18, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If it were so, babies born by caesarean section would not be sentient. There is no sharp dividing line: babies born a little before 22 weeks have lived to be sentient, even though there are several important developments in the body and brain between even 34 weeks and the 'mature' 37 weeks. Really, how sentient do you consider a 4 week old baby? Does it have enough experience to understand the world well enough to be considered sentient? Time was, doctors regularly performed surgery on babies and little children without anaesthetic on the basis that they weren't mature enough to really feel pain: they were just reacting instinctively. We now know this is bunk (I know a few older ex-nurses who still go pale at the memory, horrified at what they had been doing once the evidence came in). I don't think there is consensus on a stage of development at which sufficient sentience has developed that the being can feel pain, and doctors carrying out pre-birth procedures have to balance many factors and possible outcomes when deciding what to do. Of course, they may be carrying out these procedures on babies who in other circumstances would be classified only as foetuses.

But given we do not generally consider it murder to kill non-human animals, despite the increasing evidence (staring any observant human in the face) that many species are self-aware and really do suffer when in pain (possible definitions of sentience), I don't think it would really sway anyone. After all, we generally consider it far worse to kill a month-old child than a 5-year-old chimp, even if the chimp can demonstrate its sentience much more fully than the child. 86.142.224.71 (talk) 00:36, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

And there is also the class of the severely retarded or mentally disabled who never pass into a "too little sentience, OK to kill" category (other than brain death). --Mr.98 (talk) 01:07, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Here you're confounding sentience with cognitive power. They're quite different conceptually. Sentience is the capacity to experience qualia. I see no reason to think that the severely mentally disabled are less sentient than the rest of us. Of course, by the very nature of qualia, we can never really know, one way or another — see solipsism and animism for two opposite conclusions on the question, neither of which is really susceptible to scientific inquiry. --Trovatore (talk) 04:41, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

My belief is that people define words like "life" and "murder" in such a way as to support the rules they want people to follow -- that is, people start with the conclusions, and then work out the premises that are needed to derive those conclusions. Looie496 (talk) 02:30, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'd argue that the initial assertion is not accurate. I don't know of anyone or any culture who believes killing a baby in utero a week before it is due would not be murder. Even the most ardent pro choice supporters I know would not argue it is fine to kill a baby just before it is born. A far more commenly held belief in the past was that the quickening was an indicaton of when a foetus became a real person with a soul, there fore capable of being murdered. Vespine (talk) 04:18, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The following is not given as legal advice. But contrary to the assertion by Vespine, many legal jurisdictions in the U.S. formerly required that a baby be born alive for its subsequent killing to be murder. Killing of a fetus=murder is a modern legal development in the U.S. See a legal textbook on "born alive" statutes:[3]. Under common law, killing of a fetus was not homicide. Edison (talk) 19:50, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

According to Late-term abortion#Legal restrictions on later abortion, in 54 of the 152 most populous nations, abortion is legal at any stage. — DanielLC 05:48, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That section is a bit nebulous. If you read the reference associated with that section's content, it's not entirely clear that that math is exact. The review groups countries into how they are restricted on availability, such as to save the woman's life or for socioeconomic reasons; a gestational limit isn't one of those categories. A gestational limit is only noted for countries with no other restrictions and of those, only four have laws that don't specify a limit - Canada, China, North Korea, and Vietnam. So, other countries may or may not have gestational limits regulating abortions in addition to their other restrictions, but there's no way to tell based on that reference. Mind you, all of that is from 12 years ago, so many things may have changed. ~ Amory (u • t • c) 15:16, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I don't mean the process of birth itself. There is are a lot more sensations when you're born. Things actually happen. Before you're born, there's no point in having any significant brain activity. By the way, I was reading the abortion page and it said that there's some controversy that fetuses might feel pain. This seems rather silly, as they must be sentient to feel pain, and if they are, it's bad to kill them because it's murder. Is the idea that they're like animals for a period, and they have sentience, but no right to life? — DanielLC 05:48, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes. And babies do have significant brain activity before birth and it may be meaningful and they feel pain by most definitions. It's all about definitions really so people who work in words feel okay about it as we have no objective way of measuring sentience or pain and there is no objective reason for them to mean anything anyway, they are not like the amount of energy one can get from a lump of coal or anything like that. Dmcq (talk) 12:23, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Maximum rate of a energy delivered for a given voltage

I am trying to understand if, given a voltage and a duration, whether it is possible to calculate the maximum amount of electrical energy that can be delivered. To put this in context I am trying to judge the maximum amount of energy it might take to recharge this car given just the voltage and the duration of energy delivery (100 volts - 180 minutes, 200 volts - 100 minutes). I understand that the voltage does not have an exact correlation with how much energy is drawn (my kettle draws 2kwh, and my phone charger much less, even though they are both plugged into a 240v socket), but I want to understand whether there is a maximum rate of energy transfer for a given voltage (or do other things, current?, come into play). Sorry, electricity has always been a big blind spot for me. Any help appreciated. BurningFridge (talk) 00:30, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See the article on Electric power. In summary (and ignoring power factor) the energy transfer is a function of voltage, current and time. Power (watts) = voltage (volts) x current (amps); energy (joules) = power (watts) x time (seconds). Thus for any given voltage, the maximum energy transfer is a function of the current. In Australia, normal household power outlets are rated at a maximum 10A, although you can get 15A sockets. Mitch Ames (talk) 01:01, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The likely reason for the disparity (twice the voltage but not half the time) is likely to be to do with the need to limit battery overheating and perhaps also due to inefficiencies through the charging circuit which may worsen as the voltage gets bigger. The physics of recharging batteries is rather complicated. SteveBaker (talk) 01:14, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Some people find the Hydraulic analogy helps understanding of electricity. The difference between the OP's kettle and phone charger is that the kettle has much lower resistance R (ohms) than the charger. The power taken from the 240V supply is inversely proportional to R so the kettle takes the greater power. (We can calculate the kettle resistance R = 240 x 240 / 2000 = 28.8 ohm.) In principle, from a given voltage one can draw any power by connecting a load of appropriate R. In practice the power delivery is stopped if current I = 240 / R (amps) exceeds the current rating in amps of the fuse. In order to calculate the energy (joules) = power (watts) x time (seconds) for charging the car one needs to know the current drawn from the supply during the charge cycle. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 01:28, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Indeed, that's true. But it doesn't help much because those car chargers that attempt to charge as quickly as possible don't draw (or supply) continuous amounts of constant current - they have to monitor battery temperature and voltage and vary the amount of current as the batteries are charged in order to prolong their life while minimizing the recharge time. Therefore the actual recharge time will depend on the ambient temperature and the amount of ventilation keeping the batteries cool. It's not easy to calculate without understanding the details of what the charger is doing, how the battery temperature changes, how heat is lost from the battery compartment, etc. SteveBaker (talk) 12:50, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That's also true. To find the energy consumed one must measure how the current varies as a function of time during the charge cycle and integrate (i.e. find the area under the i = f(t) curve) to get the overall current x time product. To find the energy actually delivered to the battery one has to integrate over time the product of charge current and voltage, both varying. Energy delivered to the battery is less than energy consumed because inefficiency of the charger wastes the difference as heat. During use the battery will again deliver less energy than that with which it was charged. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 19:42, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

From purely theoretical considerations of the physics of electricity, any given voltage could deliver any given amount of energy in a given time, if the circuit impedance were made low enough. The impedance of the load and the impedance of the source are what limit the current. Additionally the fuse or circuit breaker in the supply, along with the electronics of the battery charging circuit are the practically limiting variables. Edison (talk) 19:45, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Flame tests

Will metal ions with different charges (i.e. Fe3+ and Fe2+) produce different colors in flame tests? 76.204.127.175 (talk) 03:53, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That's a good question. If you haven't already, see emission spectrum. In this situation, it might be helpful to imagine a Bohr model. Under controlled circumstances, we should say that the tempurature is the same for both tests, because varying temperatures can effect the color. Fe+2 is the ion of iron, with 3 energy levels. When excited, we could say that the electrons jump up 3 energy levels, then fall to their original orbital energy level, releasing a photon of light. This is complexely measured in an emission spectrum.

An emission spectrum of Fe+2

Let's say that for some reason, an electron was taken from the atom of iron, making it Fe+3. If this was able to be maintained, (it would be somewhat difficult to keep the unstable Fe+3 from reacting, unless in a container of inert gas) and it was excited, the electrons would only manage to jump up 2 energy levels. To the naked eye, one might not be able to distinguish different colors, but the emission spectrum would be the tell-all. It would be slightly different than a Fe+2 ion. If you have any questions, ask here or on my talk page :). Letter ⁷ _{it's the best letter :)} 13:51, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Also when we are calm we could say that the electrons, when excited, jump up 3 energy levels. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 19:23, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

What is the capacitance of a black hole?

The article "Detecting Energy Emissions from a Rotating Black Hole" at [4] (free subscription required to view) makes the statement in passing that the capacitance of a black hole C = 1/M (approximately). I guess these are in natural units. Does anyone happen to know where this relationship is derived or explained, and what the units are? The Wikipedia article on natural units [5] doesn't define capacitance or voltage.

Trevor Turton —Preceding unsigned comment added by Tijaska (talk • contribs) 04:17, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This abstract says "The notion of electric capacitance for a black hole is introduced", so might be worth a look. --Sean 17:47, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Naively, I'd expect it to be similar to the self-capacitance of an isolated sphere,

C=4\pi \epsilon _{0}R={8\pi GM\epsilon _{0} \over c^{2}}

, where R is the Schwarzchild radius, but your reference suggests that's not even the right proportionality. So obviously more complicated effects matter. Dragons flight (talk) 18:32, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Natural units of charge are chosen so that G = 1/4πε₀. With all factors added back in, C = 1/M should become C = 4πε₀ħ / cM, but you probably shouldn't take my word on that. Membrane paradigm has a tiny bit on this subject and lists some references. -- BenRG (talk) 18:43, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

cosmatics

How cosmatics are manufactured, tell me complete procedure —Preceding unsigned comment added by 119.152.59.27 (talk) 06:36, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

_{I have slightly reformatted your question to make it easier to read. Richard Avery (talk) 08:30, 5 November 2009 (UTC)}[reply]

What kind of cosmetics? There are lots of different types. AlmostReadytoFly (talk) 09:12, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's not very different from any other chemical product manufacture. Generally, a pigment (coloring chemical) is added to a binder (like a wax or a synthetic oil - or an alcohol, in some cases); fragrance may also be added. Finally, the stock mixture will be cut and packaged by special-purpose machinery. The actual procedure will depend on the type in question. Hopefully a quality-control process is in place to help ensure the safety of the finished product. Nimur (talk) 17:55, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Insolation

How to find solar insolation patterns at various points in the jupiter's atmosphere. A comparison with earth is needed —Preceding unsigned comment added by 220.225.125.246 (talk) 09:16, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Figuring out the insolation at the top of the atmosphere is easy. It looks like all the trigonometry is worked out in the insolation article, whereas the parameters of Jupiter orbit are given, not surprisingly, in the Jupiter (planet) article. Now, the insolation within the atmosphere is very much more tricky. Strictly speaking, you need to model the absorption and the scattering of light at every position at every wavelength into every direction. This requires a full 3D radiation transfer model. As Gandalf said, "this foe is beyond any of you..." --Dr Dima (talk) 10:32, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Properties of alcohols

what are he properties for the following alcohols and their chemical formulae:

DL-2-pentanol
pentan-1-0l
octanol-1-0l
ethanol
butan-1-ol
n-porpyl

send to email address removed —Preceding unsigned comment added by 120.18.247.221 (talk) 11:40, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Wikipedia gets copied mercilessly across the internet. It's a bad idea to put your email address on this website, as it will likely attract much more spam than you want. Falconus^{p t c} 12:39, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

We do not answer questions by email - you have to return here to find responses - and we remove people's email addresses if they provide them. We have articles on pentanol, octanol, ethanol, butanol and propanol which (I believe) will answer all of your questions. SteveBaker (talk) 12:42, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(edit conflict)

These pages generally give the formulae and properties. AlmostReadytoFly (talk) 12:49, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Uncompressed image file formats other than .bmp files

What other file formats are there, apart from BMP files, that are uncompressed and can be processed as a raw bit stream? I require to know the exact file structure of these formats.Csanghamitra (talk) 15:34, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The results for searching this includes:

[6], [7]

This question belongs on the Computing desk, I think. Imagine Reason (talk) 16:22, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

TIFF files are commonly used by image processing people. They can store uncompressed data. PNG can store with lossless compression (but compressed), depending on whether your software tool supports this feature. Our Comparison of graphics file formats article allows you to sort by compression technique. If you're looking specifically for no compression, your options are narrowed down pretty significantly; lossless compression preserves information but is a bit more work for you as a programmer. "Anything" can be handled as a bitstream, but it sounds like you want to be able to seek to a specific pixel location without decoding any other values - that is a bitmap by definition; and you probably want a .BMP or TIFF container format. Nimur (talk) 18:02, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There aren't many formats that guarantee uncompressed data. PNG and TIFF are probably the best choices for LOSSLESS compression (as opposed to GIF and JPEG which have LOSSY compression). But I'm struggling to think of any format that has no compression whatever. The old "SGI" image format has only run-length encoding - it's relatively easy to unpack yourself. If you use the GIMP package for saving files, it has a "Save" format called "Raw image data" that is literally just a bunch of bytes with the pixels in it...that's guaranteed to be uncompressed and has no "structure" whatever. These days, most people just grab the freeware libPNG or libTIFF libraries and let them do the unpacking. Both can deliver a simple array of bytes to your application code. SteveBaker (talk) 18:44, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

No. Strictly speaking the GIF format gives compression with NO LOSS and certainly nothing like the distortion artifacts that strong JPEG compression produces. It is true that the number of different colours in an image may need to be reduced to keep within the maximum 256 colours that GIF can handle, but beyond that the GIF format has LOSSLESS compression. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 19:02, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well, yes - in the special case where your image happens to have that few colors and the conversion tool makes up a palette on-the-fly rather than using a standardized one...you're right - but those are very special circumstances. In general, it's lossy. SteveBaker (talk) 22:02, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This is why lossy compression is often defined in terms of generational loss—otherwise you risk having to classify every format as lossy because it demands a grid of pixels and at most 256 levels per channel and so on. GIF is only defined for input images of 256 colors or less, and compresses those without loss, so it's normally classified as lossless. At some level it's all relative; you could define the input of MP3 as just those waveforms that can be produced by a reference decoder, and a good enough lossy encoder can avoid all generational loss (most encoders in the wild are not that good). But GIF is normally considered lossless. -- BenRG (talk) 22:37, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The GIF format allows using multiple 16x16 pixel tiles with individual palettes to achieve 24-bit (over 16 million) colours in a file.Cuddlyable3 (talk) 23:21, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Vector graphic formats are compact and unsuitable for lossy compression. ~~The OP does not exclude mentioning the uncompressed audio formats WAV and PCM.~~ Cuddlyable3 (talk) 19:15, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The OP did specify image file formats. (I'm unclear why bringing in vectors is relevant... it seems rather clear they mean bitmaps). --98.217.71.237 (talk) 20:37, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Thank you, you are right and I strike the mention of audio. Vector graphic image formats are examples of uncompressed image file formats, so they are relevant to the OP who excluded one but did not insist on only raster formats. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 00:41, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A very nice format -- because of its openness, simplicity, and the number of tools available for manipulating it -- is NetPBM. —Steve Summit (talk) 23:27, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

TGA images can be stored uncompressed (and BMP supports run-length compression, though almost nobody uses it). Various digital camera raw formats are also uncompressed, but it takes a good deal of post-processing to turn them into usable images. --Carnildo (talk) 23:47, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

XBM Would be the easiest one, all it contains is a C array with values for each pixel. Problem is that it's in monochrome, but you can probably easily convert say a PNG to XBM by converting it to different channels first(hence the monochrome) then to 3 XBM files.

Sticking finger

Why do we feel sticky when we press a finger on frozen ice in the freezer of a refrigerator? —Preceding unsigned comment added by Cssivakumar (talk • contribs) 18:51, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Because your finger has slightly frozen to the ice. More fully, the heat from your finger slightly melted the ice. However, if you touch something sufficiently cold, the surface of your finger loses heat faster than the whatever-it-is gains heat, and the just-melted water quickly re-freezes. — Lomn 19:13, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The effect is much greater if your finger is already wet - that leads to cold burns. --Tango (talk) 19:48, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For this same reason, if you are in a very cold climate, like where there is snow around, do NOT touch your tongue to anything like a light post or fire hydrant. Even if someone double dares you to do it. Vespine (talk) 03:45, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Solitude drove the old hermit crab insane.

Are there any hermit crabs that actively kill shell-living critters for their houses? Vitriol (talk) 18:52, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

They don't unless they have to. If they cannot find a discarded shell they will attack a shelled-creature and nick their house. It's usually only a problem in home aquariums, as the natural environment is littered with suitable "crabitation". Fribbler (talk) 19:00, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

'Diesel' engine

Trying to make sense of second paragraph in [A http://railroad.100megsfree5.com/L8/GazTurbo-GT101.html] , the engine may be called 'СПГГ' (russian/cyrllic type) [B http://images.google.co.uk/images?hl=en&q=%D0%A1%D0%9F%D0%93%D0%93&um=1&ie=UTF-8&sa=N&tab=wi] - is the loco engine same type as here [C http://dic.academic.ru/dic.nsf/ruwiki/1140871].?

Also does this type have an article / english name? Following on I'd like to ask if anyone knows how the fuel/air (?) is injected into 'small cylinder' following release of pressurised combusted gas into turbine as shown in third link (C above) - there must be some sort of 'tappet valve' activated on return stroke to allow recharge of fuel air mixture? anyone know? Thanks..83.100.251.196 (talk) 18:53, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

We have Gas turbine locomotive and Gas turbine-electric locomotive. Commons has a picture of the GT101, but only the Russian Wikipedia links to it. We have an article GT 101, which appears to be a similar German -- not Russian -- thing, but perhaps they're related. --Sean 20:33, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks (I think GT is gas turbine in many languages and GT 101 is a coincidence) - it seems it's more common that I though - part of it is called a Free-piston engine - it was the valve or equivalent arrangements in this engine that I was wondering about.83.100.251.196 (talk) 22:45, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think I've found the answer here [8] fig 12.5 it looks like they are simple one way valves.

It didn't think to look at gas turbine locomotive - I thought it was to obscure to be mentioned..but there were similar things in france and sweden...

If there is a name (person?) for the "free piston / gas turbine combination" it would be interesting, or is the free piston engine always assumed coupled to a gas turbine??83.100.251.196 (talk) 22:50, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Drosophila melanogaster and human genome homology

Is there a published estimate of how many similar genes we and the fruit fly have? The Drosophila melanogaster article has some numbers, but I contested them on the talk page years ago, sadly without good sources. Now a prominent Finnish newspaper stated on their science pages that the genetic similarity is 66%, but that I just can't make myself believe (and therefore I hesitate to use that as a reference in the Finnish featured DM article) Any ideas about reliable homology percentage estimates? --Albval (talk) 20:25, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Actually, I'm surprised it's so little. Remember that most of that genome is comprised of things to make cells run - all sorts of complicated biochemistry that's very similar - if not identical - between a fruit fly and a human. SteveBaker (talk) 21:58, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I did a little research and found the BBC saying it was 60% (but no reliable sources, really). I'm a little surprised it is so low too - I've heard similar figures for bananas and surely we have a lot more in common with fruit flies than bananas. There are different ways to measure genetic similarity, though. For example, do you include differences in non-coding DNA or not? --Tango (talk) 22:26, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well, they are fruit flies. ~ Amory (u • t • c) 22:39, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It wouldn't be possible to compare non-coding regions between fruit flies and humans -- there's no way to figure out what a given part should be compared to. Looie496 (talk) 23:58, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's possible to compare the non-coding regions that are linked to a particular gene, such as introns. It's also possible to compare non-coding regions of more recently diverged organisms, such as humans to mice, as the sequence of chromosomal rearrangements can be deduced, and the non-coding regions aligned. However, you are correct, that there would be no way to know how to align the non-coding regions of humans and fruit flies. Anyway, I've been trying to find something, anything, to answer the OP's question. As with others, I have found some news reports that give a number, but I haven't found any reliable sources on the matter outside of research reports related to only a specific gene, and not the whole genome. Someguy1221 (talk) 01:10, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

77% of human disease genes have versions or "cognates" in Drosophila.[9] Fences&Windows 04:12, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I haven't checked in a few years. 60-77% sounds correct as a rough estimate. I'll go see if I can scare up some better numbers. -- Flyguy649 ^talk 05:50, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The 2003 Drosophila fly community White Paper states that greater than 60% of Drosophila genes have human counterparts with the 70% figure describing similarities to disease-associated genes [10]. I'll see if there's anything more recent, but I'd be surprised if it's in a paper. This degree of conservation between flies and humans was really surprising when it was first discovered in the early part of the millennium. Now it's accepted as fact. At the time of the big genome sequencing projects, the estimate for the number of human genes ranged from 50,000-100,000. Researchers were shocked to find that there are only 23,000 or so genes in humans (flies have ~14,000) .-- Flyguy649 ^talk 06:18, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Feels somewhat strange to me that there aren't any more detailed comparative analyses made, especially when you see different kinds of human-mouse and human-fly similarity percentages in the popular media quite often. Or is it computationally just too hard to figure out, which DNA stretches actually are homologous? Or is it just not scientifically interesting enough? Anyway, your estimate is good enough for me, the exact percentage the newspaper article gave just made me wonder if there really was a study wrom which the newspaper article had taken its figures. Now it seems that the journalist just took the numbers out of thin air... --Albval (talk) 08:43, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Coincidentally, I was reading The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution last night and Dawkins makes a good point about these percentage-identical measurements for DNA. As he explains, if you're comparing the individual C, G, A and T base-pairs - then you get a different answer depending on how you handle missing, inserted or repeated sequence comparisons. If you are talking about codons, you get another different answer because there are cases where two or more different codons produce identical proteins - do you count those as "different" or not? If you are talking about genes - then you get another different answer because two genes only have to differ by one letter to be "different" and that means that there is a much greater probability of two genes being different than two base-pairs, so the percentage-different numbers are much higher. If you compare entire chromosomes then the probability of any two creatures - even closely related members of the same species - being anything other than 100% different is almost zero. Worse still, some animals have much the same genes - but arranged on totally different chromosomes - are those very different or very similar? So unless you are VERY careful about the level of comparison and the method of accounting for differences - then you can't give a definitive answer. That means that the 'popular-science' answers like "Chimpanzees and Humans have 98% identical DNA" doesn't mean very much.

Consider, for example, the following two DNA chunks (evidently taken from feline DNA!):

   CATCATCATCATCATCATCA...
   CATGATCATCATCATCATCA...
      ^

They clearly differ in only one letter - and also only in one codon (a codon is a group of 3 letters). But what about:

   CATCATCATCATCATCATCA...
   CATATCATCATCATCATGCA...
      ^             ^

These differ by the deletion of one base-pair (a 'C') near the beginning and the insertion of another letter (a 'G') near the end. Should we say that they are nearly identical because they differ by only two base-pairs? Well, not really - the codons in the middle are completely different and would produce radically different proteins. So do these two animals have 90% identical DNA (two changes in 20 letters) or are they only 30% identical (14 differences in 20 letters) or are they 0% identical (because these two chunks would code for completely different proteins)?

SteveBaker (talk) 13:52, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I see the difficulty in base-pair/codon -level comparisions, but homologous genes shouldn't (in my opinion) be too hard to find. There will be differences even in the amino acid level of course, but the "gene" is the same. So basically if you could find all the genes in the fruit fly and in human that have shared ancestry and then divide that by total, you'd get the "popular science" answer. I'm just wondering if it is too hard to do or too silly to do, because it seems that nobody really has done it? Or am I just missing something? Albval (talk) 18:58, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The 60% figure may come from a quote by Gerry Rubin in 2000 from when the Drosophila genome was sequenced: "Of the 289 genetic flaws known to cause disease in humans, says Rubin, they have found Drosophila homologues for 60 percent and for 70 percent of the genes involved in human cancers".[11] He was referring to the finding published in Science that "The fly has orthologs to 177 of the 289 human disease genes examined."[12] The details of that study are here:[13] The 77% I quoted above is from 2001; both studies looked at orthologues of disease genes. Bier quotes it in 2002 as "75% of human genetic disease genes have clear homologues in the fly"[14], also cited here:[15] Another study from 2004, also looking at disease genes, found 1406 orthologues in Drosophila to the 2757 human disease genes in the OMIM Morbid Map, which works out as 51%.[16] A similar study using I think the same program found 774 Drosophila orthologues to 1180 human disease genes, i.e. 65.6%.[17]

The results depend on what stringency is used to decide whether a gene is an orthologue or not; the range I've found is 51-77% of human disease genes have Drosophila orthologues. I don't know that anyone has bothered doing the study for every fruit fly and human gene.

By way of contrast, a 2004 study found that 99.5% of human disease genes are found in rats: "Of the 1,112 human disease genes examined, evidence that all are represented as functional genes in the rat genome was found, except for ... six genes."[18] Fences&Windows 22:38, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Wow, that was very thorough and helpful answer. Thank you very much for your help, all of you! --Albval (talk) 08:43, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Hydrogen orbital average radius in terms of energy level.

What is the mathematical relationship between the average radius of an electron's orbit around a proton in terms of the electron's energy level? -Craig Pemberton (talk) 22:48, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Average radius is [ 3n^2 - l(l+1) ] / 2 in atomic units. Here n is principal quantum number, l is orbital quantum number. Is that what you are asking? --Dr Dima (talk) 22:55, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(edit conflict) It starts with Electric_potential#Electric_potentials_due_to_point_charges (this gives the relationship between potential energy and distance) - but to be accurate you need an average weighted properly by the probability distribution of the electron's likely hood at a given distance. (ie a mean average is not good) - that is the classical method to do it. You could just use a mean average anyway..83.100.251.196 (talk) 22:58, 5 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For the Bohr-model hydrogen atom, r_n = n² * (5.30 x 10^-11 m) where:

r_n = the radius of energy level with principle quantum number n

There is also likely a more general equation for calculating the radius of any one-electron atom (such as He⁺¹ and Li⁺²), but that is the one I found for the Bohr-model hydrogen atom. Note that the Bohr model is a pretty limited model. It works VERY well for one electron systems because it is basically a two-body problem. For any system with 2 or more electrons, you have a n-body problem, which is a chaotic system and where you cannot mathematically predict things like energy level radius and even the energies of those levels directly. --Jayron32 04:46, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

November 6

Al

What is Al on the periodic table -nick —Preceding unsigned comment added by 76.199.148.217 (talk) 01:00, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Aluminium. Intelligentsium 01:01, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Did you look for Al at Periodic table ? Perhaps Friday is not a good day for you. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 01:07, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Based on the IP address, I think it's still Thursday for that user. -- Scray (talk) 04:51, 6 November 2009 (UTC) [reply]

Some spell it "Aluminum." Edison (talk) 04:54, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Searching is quicker for something like this. One can put 'Al element' or 'chemical Al' or 'AL periodic table' in and have a look at the results. Or one can put in 'Periodic table' and use CTRL+F and type 'A' in the browser search box. Or one can put these search terms into google. All quite quick and well worthwhile learning. Dmcq (talk) 12:01, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In fact I just tried 'Al' on its own in google and Aluminium in Wikipedia was the first entry returned Dmcq (talk) 12:03, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

progenitor cells

I have read a bit about using skin cells instead of stem cells, and that there has been a lot of success with this approach, it also seems as though there are a few research groups doing groundbreaking work with skin cells. Anyways, I was wondering if skin cells have or if progenitor cells could be derived from skin cells, just as they can be derived from stem cells? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 71.156.167.117 (talk) 01:39, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The skin certainly does have stem and progenitor cells, but you are probably referring to induced pluripotent stem cells. --- Medical geneticist (talk) 02:11, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Actually, not many people know it -but today when one is going through an accident which result with a clear cut of his/her spinal cord -an accident that ones meant one result only : clear and constant disability (usually paraplegic)-today there is a new treatment available that is regulary used in few places around the globe. This treatment involve with the insertion of stem cells to location of the injury and it must be done within 48-72 hours from the injury itself. This treatment have about 100% success. The stem cells are achived from mature epidermic cells by removing methyl groups which keep the wanted master genes unactive and later shuttering others and so we can extract from mature cells culture a culture of stem cells that will go through cellular differentiation process to become new spinal cord tissues . --Gilisa (talk) 08:14, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Gilesa, you are no doubt describing the possible use of iPSCs or other such induced pluripotent cells to treat spinal injury, but to my knowledge this is still a theory and not a proven medical treatment. Can you provide a reference? Just because an experimental therapy is being tried somewhere does not mean it is a proven success. There has been a great deal of hype around stem cell therapeutics, with "miracle cures" being claimed by people doing rather unscientific experimental treatments. Most of the mainstream literature still uses animal models of spinal cord injury, we don't really know the long-term effects of injecting stem cells into the spinal cord, and to my knowledge there has been no convincing clinical trial in humans, otherwise this would be a mainstream therapy. Sorry, but I'm a natural skeptic and need to see the data before I'm willing to accept that what you say ("about 100% success") is correct. --- Medical geneticist (talk) 14:18, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I have to agree with Medical geneticist. I know rather well someone who has been a paraplegic since being injured in a motorcycle accident (truck turning didn't see him) for slightly over 3 years so have some personal experience here. Stem cells have shown some promise in improving regeneration for people with spinal cord injuries; and there are places where lower levels of regulation mean that they are 'regularly' (well I mean more commonly then the occasional trial that happens in most of the developed world) tried (for a variety of things). However I'm not aware of any evidence for 100% effectiveness in preventing paraplegic and find that extremely unlikely in theory and the lack of any mention of this in most sources also makes it very unlikely. As MG said, if it was 100% effective you can bet it would be a more mainstream therapy, or at the very least there would be a lot more hype and knowledge about this. (Why would someone hide such stellar results?) I personally suspect we will one day be able treat spinal cord injuries resonably effectively (whether primarily because of stem cells or something else) although suspect (unfortunately for my friend, although he also suspects this is the case) early results will be with those with recent injuries not who have had their injuries long term and we will probably never be able to treat long term injuries as effectively. Back to the main point, many of the current trials do of course concentrate on recent injuries although looking at the sources (particularly the last two) it doesn't appear 48-72 hours is the optimal time frame currently rather 1-2 weeks. [19] [20] [21] [22] [23] [24] [25] Nil Einne (talk) 08:02, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well, it seems like your sources are more up to dated than me. And it also seems like a friend, who is into stem cells research, fooled me once again.:(--Gilisa (talk) 16:23, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Stability of slopes

what is the application of stability of slopes —Preceding unsigned comment added by Nrnvgrao (talk • contribs) 03:24, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If Slope stability doesn't answer the question, you'll have to give more information. Looie496 (talk) 03:28, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See also "Angle of repose." Avoid slump. Edison (talk) 04:57, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This might be handy as well: Angle_of_repose -Craig Pemberton (talk) 05:03, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Evolution of the hinged fang?

How could the solenoglyph's fang possibly have evolved? This strikes me as a really good poe question because it's hard to think of a functional intermediate. What do you guys think? -Craig Pemberton (talk) 04:55, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There's nothing particularly special about such a hinged tooth; other specialized teeth which seem equally striking, certainly exist. Indeed, the hinge itself doesn't involve any joints which do not have analogues in other vertebrates, its just that they evolved to bring the venom-delivering fangs into more efficient usage. One could easily envisage a series of progressively less-efficient, but still working, systems in ancestral species of such snakes. --Jayron32 07:14, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes you'd expect very strong evolutionary pressure to act with even quite slight improvements in teeth. They are pretty important in the 'survival of the fittest'! Dmcq (talk) 11:20, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(Especially in creatures with no claws or weapons of other kinds) SteveBaker (talk) 13:30, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

These hinged fangs have evolved more than once in snakes: "Folding fangs occur in two other groups of snakes. The Australian deathadders (Acantophis), though they are elapids, are solenoglyphous. Their folding-fang mechanism is very similar in appearance and operation to that of the vipers and pitvipers. The deathadders also have the body shape and ambush-hunting habits of many viperids, an excellent example of convergent evolution."[26]

The hinged fangs are moved by palatal protractor and retractors muscles, the levator pterygoidei protractor pterygoidei and retractor pterygoidei pterygoideus respectively. These muscles attach further forward on a shortened maxilla in snakes with hinged fangs, details of the anatomy here:[27] In the evolution of 'venom delivery systems' in snakes, "dental glands became modified into Duvernoy's gland, posterior maxillary teeth became morphologically specialized relative to anterior maxillary teeth, and the anterior attachment of the pterygoideus muscle moved anteriorly, placing it in close association with the posterior maxillary teeth or fangs."[28] Basically, the development of fangs, hinges and venom just made innovative use of existing anatomy. Fences&Windows 19:17, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Difference between airport and aerodrome

what is diffrent between airport and aerodrome? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 80.191.114.227 (talk) 07:03, 6 November 2009 (UTC) —Preceding unsigned

_{I have reformatted the question Richard Avery (talk) 07:12, 6 November 2009 (UTC)}[reply]

In the Canadian regulations [29], an aerodrome is "Any area of land, water (including the frozen surface thereof) or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped or set apart for use either in whole or in part for the arrival, departure, movement or servicing of aircraft and includes any buildings, installations and equipment situated thereon or associated therewith." An airport is an aerodrome certified to conform to certain regulations with respect to "obstruction surfaces, physical characteristics, marking and lighting, which have been recorded in an Airport Operations Manual, and Airside Operating Procedures." (from above link). So basically, all airports are aerodromes, but only some aerodromes are airports. (I believe this also is the same under international rules). -- Flyguy649 ^talk 08:26, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

An airport - is a port - just like a shipping port - someplace where goods and people come in and out of a state or country. An airfield is some place where you can land and take off with aircraft - perhaps just for joyrides or local traffic. Generally, airports have customs and immigration facilities but airfields don't. Wiktionary says that in British English, an aerodrome has to have those things too so an aerodrome is an airport - but in Australian and Canadian English, it means the same thing as an airfield. I've never heard an American use the word and it's unclear what it means in American English. The word is pretty archaic though - I'd stick with "airfield" and "airport". SteveBaker (talk) 13:28, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In British English, aerodrome is somewhat archaic and little used. We would tend to use airport and airfield as above. --Phil Holmes (talk) 15:12, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Here in the USA, the only time I've heard the word "aerodrome" used seriously is to refer to Old_Rhinebeck_Aerodrome. APL (talk) 06:45, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Only an "international airport" would have customs and immigration, a ordinary domestic airport wouldn't. Rmhermen (talk) 14:40, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

strength of a C-C bond

From the carbon-nitrogen bond article: "The bond strength in a CN bond is higher (184 kcal/mol) than that of the CC bond (145 kcal/mol) [2]".

Is it talking about a C=C double bond? I thought the strength of a C-C bond was around 82 kcal/mol. John Riemann Soong (talk) 08:38, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I would remove the line from the article altogether, since it is highly a highly ambiguous statement. If you want to make an apples-to-apples comparison, see [30]. The data is in kJ rather than kcal, but it looks like a C-C bond is stronger than a C-N (though the C-N bond is shorter); however the C=C bond is weaker than the C=N bond, and the C≡C bond is weaker than the C≡N. I would use that source and fix the article to be less ambiguous. The source in the article NOW is simply the CRC Handbook, and while I have a copy of said Handbook, I'm not going to leaf through 1000 or so pages of tiny writing to try to find where that particular editor found that particular nugget and see what he really meant. I would just use the new, unambiguous source and fix the article. --Jayron32 16:49, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Camphire in singapore

can you find camphire in singapore —Preceding unsigned comment added by 218.186.12.230 (talk) 10:09, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Camphire is (I believe) Lawsonia inermis - or more commonly Henna. Our article says "It is native to tropical and subtropical regions of Africa, southern Asia, and northern Australasia in semi-arid zones." - which suggests that it could probably be found in Singapore. It seems that Henna dye is used extensively in Singapore for tattoos - but, I couldn't find anything that definitely says that it grows there. SteveBaker (talk) 13:19, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Henna seems to grow in Malaysia,[31] like Steve I can find nothing about it growing in Singpore. Henna is sold and used in Singapore though. Fences&Windows 18:42, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

sulfuryl chloride: how does it replace a C-OH bond with a C-Cl bond?

Apparently this is what happens in the production of sucralose... I struggle to get a mechanism because all the bond energies seem disfavourable (C-O is stronger than C-Cl; O-H is stronger than O-Cl). In fact, most favourable seems to be chlorination at a hydrogen atom site ... I know it is by a free radical mechanism. What generally happens when a halogen and an alcohol group are on the same carbon atom? I get the feeling that one pushes the other out...John Riemann Soong (talk) 10:10, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The article Sulfuryl chloride does discuss the process, if not the mechanism, of sulfuryl chloride as a chlorinating agent. Since the molecule is itself somewhat unstable, and will over a relatively short time (days/weeks) spontaneously decompose into sulfur dioxide and chlorine I suspect that the reactive compound in this case is NOT the sulfuryl chloride, rather the actual reactive bit is diatomic chlorine; the sulfuryl chloride is merely a source of diatomic chlorine; being a liquid it is much easier to work with than a gas. Our article hints at this. Thus, it seems that the mechanism is a simple radical chlorination reaction; see Free radical halogenation. --Jayron32 16:42, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

π⁰
decay

When a pion decays into 2 photons by π⁰
→ 2 γ what is the energy in eV of the resulting photons?--IngerAlHaosului (talk) 10:36, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In the rest frame of the pion, conservation of energy tells you that the total energy of the photons must be equivalent to the rest mass of the pion, and conservation of momentum tells you that the photons must have equal but opposite momentum vectors, therefore equal wavelengths and therefore equal energies. I'll let you take it from there. Gandalf61 (talk) 14:15, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Fluid mechanics

What is the use of coefficent of discharge,coefficent of velocity and contraction? —Preceding unsigned comment added by Nrnvgrao (talk • contribs) 11:13, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

These are empirical factors to account for the first-order deviation between theoretical and actual values of the discharge, velocity, and contraction of a fluid. See flow coefficient. Nimur (talk) 13:51, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

GRAVITATIONAL RED/BLUE SHIFT

210.212.239.181 (talk) 12:43, 6 November 2009 (UTC)HARSHAGG[reply]

ALSO is there gravitational blue shift. Now consider light coming out perpendicular to surface of earth then graviton moving at c can't interact with light so no red shift can observe. Is this feasible because I can't find solution to this they just use classical concept of potential energy(classical in sense the one i know if there exist another concept i am not aware of

210.212.239.181 (talk) 12:38, 6 November 2009 (UTC)HARSHAGG HI I was reading the page on black hole and came across that when charge say +ve go inside black hole then applying gauss law there should be electric field but no photon can come out of black hole so no electromagnetic interaction can be there but it happens. This question is unanswered I contact my teacher they also don't know about this.[reply]

We have an introductory article on charged black holes. Needless to say, the mathematics to describe the behavior is extremely complicated; there is a quick description of the double event horizon. It is speculated (by prominent scientists in the field) that electrostatic repulsion would prevent such a charged black hole from forming naturally. Nimur (talk) 13:57, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The electromagnetic field of a charged black hole comes from the charged material that collapsed to form the black hole, before it crossed the event horizon. It doesn't come from beyond the event horizon—any change in the distribution of charge inside the event horizon has no effect on the field outside. The same is true of the gravitational field. These are sometimes called "fossil" or "relic" fields. If you're wondering why the field doesn't redshift out of detectability, well, it turns out that fields don't work that way. I don't truly understand why.

I don't know how to explain this in terms of virtual particles. Probably it's a bad idea to think about it in those terms. The theory objectively predicts that nothing that happens inside the event horizon affects the field outside, so any explanation that claims that "virtual particles can escape the event horizon" will have to ensure that those virtual particles don't have any observable effect on the outside, so they might as well not have escaped the event horizon at all. -- BenRG (talk) 16:32, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

210.212.239.181 (talk) 04:29, 9 November 2009 (UTC)Harshagg Thanks for making me understand the basic concept of charged black hole. Can someone help for the concept of no red shift when coming normal to gravitational field[reply]

Infinite differential method

what is the use of infinite differntial method in solving problems in physics? —Preceding unsigned comment added by Snehrajravi (talk • contribs) 16:59, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Bird bones

I have two bird bones. They are a left and a right. They are not long bones. I do not know what they are! They look sort of like two tiny femurs with broad, triangular bases and a prong sticking out just above the broad base. One of the points of this base has a round hole in it. They aren't in my avian osteology book and I can't find them through googling pictures of bird bones. Help? 138.192.58.227 (talk) 17:13, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Identification would be easier if you could photograph them and upload the photos to a Flickr or Photobucket account, and link to the photos from here. Comet Tuttle (talk) 18:38, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yeah -- definitely take a photo. There is already a lack of proper communication, as you state they appear as 'femurs' yet assert they 'are not long bones.' The femur is a long bone, and if you were using 'long' as a mere adjective (and not referring to the aforementioned link), how long do you expect a bird's bone to be anyway...sort of subjective to the extreme. DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 19:56, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I suppose they could be long bones (and yes, I do now what it means. I was thinking they were more like vertebrae or carpals in type). They have a similar shape to femurs but are not - I have the femurs i.d.'d already. They are femur-like on the ends, but are nowhere near long enough, as I have the bird's femurs (and humeri, etc.) already. I know I probably should take a picture, but I can't. 138.192.58.227 (talk) 17:28, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

How do you know they're bird bones? Assuming that they are, and that they don't look like what's in your textbook, the thing to consider is how easily bones can be shaped to suit different circumstances (i.e. adaptive radiation). Examine the bones and try to identify points of attachment, etc. and look through your book for bones which have the same kind of pattern, if not necessarily the same shape. The femur of a crow, for example, will look wildly different from the femur of a heron in terms of shape, but the basic pattern of structures will largely be the same. Matt Deres (talk) 04:38, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The book has examples of a wide variety of bird species. These look nothing like any of them. The book is also missing a few other bones that I was able to identify. I know they are brid because of the look and texture, and also because I know they came from a bird - I didn't just pick up some random parts. 138.192.58.227 (talk) 17:28, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Emission spectra

I understand which wavelengths can be emitted by a given element, but not where you can calculate (rather than observe) the percentage of each type of photon emitted. Clearly, you can observe this, and I would imagine it is governed by a probability system. Have we (that is, the scientific community) worked this out yet? In short, can you calculate the total colour (i.e. the apparent colour) of a given element, not just which frequencies it's made up of? - Jarry1250 ^{[Humorous? Discuss.]} 17:17, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'm not sure what you mean. The only way you could calculate the wavelengths of light emitted by an atom absent of making any measurements is via the Rydberg formula; however that only applies to the Bohr model atoms, i.e. 1-electron atoms (H, He⁺¹, Li⁺², etc.) For any atom with more than one electron, you have an n-body problem, and no simple algebraic function can be written to predict the wavelengths emitted by such atoms; you can only observe the wavelengths, not mathematically predict them as with the Rydberg formula. --Jayron32 18:35, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think the question presumes that you already know the wavelengths of an element's emission lines. How do you determine the relative strength of each line (and hence the visual appearance of the emission)? The answer will depend on various factors (temperature, density, incident radiation). How well can we predict the line strengths given the circumstances? -- Coneslayer (talk) 19:34, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Color is a complex phenomena that is hard to quantify; there are many methods of plotting color in various multiple dimensions, for example. While we can quantify a single wavelength of light as a certain value, to "quantify" a bulk color made up of many wavelengths with a series of values is a difficult thing to do. Color is really about perception and not quantification. Consider, for example, that the color we call "yellow" could be made of a single wavelength OR it could be made of mixture of multiple wavelengths of light, and yet our mind would find two such colors indistinguishable; that is our color perception equipment in our minds cannot distinguish between coherant light of a single wavelength or a color made of an average of wavelengths.

As far as determining the bulk color of an excited substance; that's easy. Just look at the color before the light is passed through a prism. Emission spectra still require a prism or diffraction grating to seperate the wavelengths into an actual spectrum, so if you want to know what color such a spectrum would make if mixed together, just look at the light before it passes through the prism! --Jayron32 19:58, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You're talking about observations, which the OP is specifically not interested in. He's asking about predicting the emission spectrum (line strengths, not just wavelengths) from physical principles. -- Coneslayer (talk) 20:04, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See below by Coneslayer. That's the whole point, for atoms with more than one electron, you have an n-body problem which is almost imposible to predict via mathematics. It's been done for hydrogen and helium, and those required some rather complex modeling and some serious computing power. Once you get to atoms like, say, Carbon, with multiple electrons in multiple ground state orbitals, the system is just way too chaotic to even attempt a prediction. We can observe the light coming off, but we cannot predict a priori knowing only the ground state energy levels, what anything about the spectrum (wavelength OR intensity) --Jayron32 02:57, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks for the pointer. That Coneslayer guy is pretty sharp. -- Coneslayer (talk) 04:00, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Here is one code to model emission spectra for astrophysical sources: CLOUDY. The references in the "Predicted intensities of hydrogen and helium lines" section of the FAQ may be helpful. I think the short answer is that even for relatively simple atoms, "it's hard". -- Coneslayer (talk) 20:10, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(reply to all). Thanks. Coneslayer is right about what I meant, and your answers are very helpful. - Jarry1250 ^{[Humorous? Discuss.]} 11:38, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For details about the necessary calculations you should look into time-dependent perturbation theory; in principle, using an appropriate oscillating potential (= perturbation Hamiltonian), you are able to calculate the time evolution of an eigenstate of the unperturbed system, and therefore the probability that a transition to a particular other eigenstate has occurred after a given time period. That will tell you something about absorption and stimulated emission. For really understanding spontaneous emission you need quantum electrodynamics; there is an approximation here (by the way, besides dipole transitions from the formula, there are higher-order transitions: quadrupole radiation etc.). Icek (talk) 11:08, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

5-membered dioxane formation from a sugar

Help! I don't know how a diol on a straight-chain sugar is supposed to form a 5-membered heteroatom ring ... basically the alcohol oxygens are geminal ethoxy atoms on a propyl chain, (but vicinal diols on the sugar chain) ... John Riemann Soong (talk) 18:22, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ring closure in sugars is a type of hemiacetal or hemiketal reaction, see also Furanose which is the 5-membered ring of which you speak. --Jayron32 18:28, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ummm, how do I put this protecting group on? Googling is so frustrating! It's not a ring closure via the carbonyl -- it's an extra protecting group that gets put on the secondary alcohols; the carbonyl and the primary alcohols remain untouched. John Riemann Soong (talk) 18:31, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's also a dioxane ... that is there are two ethoxy oxygens in this ring. The sugar backbone is straight-chained. HELP! I'm going to die in 3 hours! John Riemann Soong (talk) 18:33, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You're going to have to provide more details. Do you have the complete problem you are trying to solve? I cannot help you without more information. If this is a homework problem (like a total synthesis problem) or something, we're going to need the exact wording so we can steer you in the right direction. Full structures and stuff would also be helpful. --Jayron32 18:37, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Apparently it's called an acetonide --- but all we have on the subject on acetonides is how they're used as drugs?!! John Riemann Soong (talk) 18:38, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Here it is ... I have to start with a sugar. Apparently I have to put these protecting groups on ... then I can oxidise the alcohols and ketones into carboxylic acids (or acid chlorides...?) The problem is that the protecting groups are sensitive to acid so acid-catalysed esterification after that might be an issue. John Riemann Soong (talk) 18:41, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The protecting groups in this case are acetone ketals. Normally, you protect a ketone by using something like Ethylene glycol to form the cyclic ketal; however the reverse is perfectly valid, you can do a protection of vicinal diols by using a simple ketone, like acetone. That is all that is done here. Look up the mechanism of ketal protection of ketones, and its the exact same mechanism for forming the groups in that molecule. It's basically a ketal protection in reverse.--Jayron32 18:48, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I really don't get how this protection works. Do you basically kick out the carbonyl oxygen and form a carbocation that the other diol can bind to? :S John Riemann Soong (talk) 18:52, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, the second OR replaces the OH (that OH being the carbonyl oxygen atom) by an SN1 reaction. DMacks (talk) 18:55, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Also, should I put this protecting group on before I do oxidation of the primary alcohols / aldehydes...? John Riemann Soong (talk) 18:59, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See this document and page down till you get to the section titled "MECHANISM FOR THE ACID catalyzed FORMATION OF ACETALS" It contains the full electron-pushing mechanism you seek. In YOUR case, instead of using two different ethanol molecules to form the acetal, you would be using the neighboring vicinal -OH groups in the sugar, but it is otherwise identical to that mechanism. --Jayron32 19:08, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Age Re-Perfect Pro-Calcium L'Oréal Paris

What does "Pro-Calcium" means? I know there are some substances with the prefix "pro", but does it make any sense here? Quest09 (talk) 18:52, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, "pro-calcium" is a perfectly valid marketting term, regardless of whether there is any actual factual/scientific meaning behind it or whether or not that meaning is relevant to the context and intended purpose. DMacks (talk) 18:56, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I suppose there is no meaning behind that, but I am not completely sure. Anyway, I don't know if it is perfectly legitime to use the name. If the intention is to make people believe the product has some advantage that it doesn't - like fixating calcium - you could have trespassed a moral barrier, even if legally it is allowed.--81.47.159.223 (talk) 19:53, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The safest position, in the absence of any other evidence, is to assume that the marketing terms used by cosmetics manufactures are pseudo-scientific bullshit. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 86.134.115.178 (talk) 00:58, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

According to Wiktionary, we have five meanings for 'pro-' to choose between:

agreeing with; supporting; favoring
substituting for
earlier; prior
rudimentary
in front of

Something that 'supports' calcium is, I suppose, possible - maybe something that aided calcium uptake perhaps? Substituting for is an unlikely thing - if your body needs actual calcium, there is no substitute! Earlier than calcium?? That makes no sense. Rudimentary calcium - would be just calcium - you don't get much more rudimentary than a chemical element! In front of calcium...again, makes no sense.

So the only meaning that really makes sense is that this is something that helps calcium do it's job in some way. However, as others have correctly pointed out, cosmetics manufacturers appear to feel absolutely ZERO need to make any sense whatever - so this could mean anything. Also, this is "Pro-Calcium(tm)" - they couldn't have trademarked the name of a real chemical element - so this is evidently something they just thought up.

Loreal's own web page says that it's made of "Calcium microspheres"...but such a thing would be incredibly reactive with water - definitely not something you'd want anywhere near your face. Most likely, it's calcium carbonate - which would be chalk dust.

SteveBaker (talk) 01:55, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

L'Oreal's "Pro-Calcium" products contain calcium pantetheine sulfonate, which in vitro, anyway, reduces the amount of pigmentation in skin cells.[32] The Pro-Calcium products also contain hydroxyapatite, a calcium-containing mineral which theoretically might improve your skin's barrier functions, although I can't readily find a study that would support that claim. See [33]. Red Act (talk) 02:07, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Buteyko method

Is the Buteyko method woo-woo? -Craig Pemberton (talk) 19:30, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It does not sound like complete bullshit. Reading the article, it is basically physical therapy for asthma; that is training the breathing airways to remain open via deliberate intentional conditioning. Such methods sound plausible; however the article at Wikipedia also notes that the method requires dedication and committment on the part of the patient; so it may be possible that the method may not have as good of an outcome across a wide spectrum of patients, especially since some patients may not "do it right", and thus it may not work for them. The article unfortunately makes the method SOUND like bullshit, even if it is scientifically valid, since it uses such known bullshit terms like "holistic" and the phrase "There are no known negative trials" is worrysome because it does not define a "negative trial"; and I would not recognize that term in any actual scientific study anyways. So, on the face it looks like a plausible treatment for asthma, but that doesn't necessarily mean it is the best treatment for asthma. --Jayron32 19:50, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That's the thing: it begs to be called out, but I don't see any obvious flaws. For example, these two videos are eerily similar in format: utter bunk and a Buteyko seminar. Both are overly confident, cite a bunch of science they don't understand, ask the audience leading questions, etc. I'm just worried that the articles on stuff like Bohr effect seem legit only because they've slipped by the notice of most Wikipedians. -Craig Pemberton (talk) 20:33, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

After reading this discussion, I went and did some minor clean-up to the article. Nowhere but the lead mentions "holistic" and "philosophy". One can't prove a negative so I removed the un-citable sentence about "no known negative trials". =Axlq 05:32, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Killing Viruses

We have drugs that are capable of killing fungi and bacteria pathogens, however we do not have drugs that can kill viruses. Is this because any drugs that are capable of killing viruses are also capable of killing surrounding tissue? I checked the article on nanomedicine, and it didn't mention much about using nanomachines to kill viruses. Are there any ideas to use nanomachines to kill viruses? ScienceApe (talk) 19:51, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's because viruses are technically not living. We have drugs that inactivate many of the processes they direct or undergo, such as antiretrovirals and protease inhibitors. And in reference to your comment about antifungals -- it's those drugs that are dangerous to surrounding human tissues, because fungi are eukaryotes and have much more similar (or identical) processes and components to humans and animals than do prokaryotic bacteria. For the most part, antifungals work to inhibit the fungi cell wall production, with many of them targeting ergosterol. Check out amphotericin B and it's terrible effects on the human kidney (hence the nickname 'amphoterrible B'). DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 19:57, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'd dispute that. Viruses are not cellular life, but that is a rather restrictive view of life. Viruses replicate, usually but not necessarily with the help of others, inherit genetic mutations, and are subject to natural selection. You can't say the same about, say, fire. Imagine Reason (talk) 16:22, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You can dispute it all you want, but that's the biological classification. DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 03:28, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Really? Last I heard, it was still a largely disputed concept. It doesn't really matter, though - viruses are what they are whether we call them "life" or not. It's not that we don't understand what viruses are so we're not sure how to classify them, it's just about the definition of the word "alive". --Tango (talk) 04:01, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The definition of life is about as meaningful to me as the definition of a planet. It's subjected to mostly arbitrary rules and criteria so it's not really that important. Almost certainly the definition of life would have to change if we discover life on other planets anyway, or if the origin of life is finally determined. The origin of life is still an unknown so no one knows what life really is. ScienceApe (talk) 05:19, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It seems like you had your answer, then, before you even asked the question. :) DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 14:54, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

As for nanomachines - we don't really have any of those that are useful for much yet. The state of the research is far to early along a very long development trail for them to be useful for anything much yet. Nanomaterials are starting to become very useful though - so we'll probably get there in the end. So for now we're stuck with much more conventional medicine. Part of the difficulty here is that for some parts of the viral life-cycle, they are nothing more than little bits of DNA that are floating around in our cells tricking them into making more virusses. At that phase in that cycle, they are inside the cell, looking and behaving just like any other chunk of DNA. That's gonna make them exceedingly hard to destroy. So while you might come up with some scheme to remove all of the virusses floating around outside of the cells - there would always be some small percentage that would be tucked away, almost impossible to reach. SteveBaker (talk) 01:36, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Nanotech would struggle to directly "kill" a virus. According to our article, virus, viruses are typically between 10 and 300nm in diameter. That makes them about the same size as nanotech. The difficulty of doing anything directly to viruses is why we use things like the protease inhibitors mentioned above - they stop the infected cells producing more viruses rather than doing anything to the viruses themselves. --Tango (talk) 01:45, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Doesn't our immune system destroy viruses? How do they destroy viruses? ScienceApe (talk) 03:41, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Things like Cytotoxic T cells will kill cells infected by viruses. I'm not sure the immune system does anything to directly kill viruses. --Tango (talk) 04:45, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Also, things like antibodies or immunoglobins are used by the body to tag viruses for cleanup by other methods, but this again doesn't "destroy" the virus, it merely identifies the virus for cleanup by T-cells. --Jayron32 05:34, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

What does cleanup by T-cells mean exactly? How does it clean it up? ScienceApe (talk) 18:23, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See my link - the T-cells kill the cell containing the virus, thus preventing the virus using that cell to reproduce. --Tango (talk) 19:30, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I know I already looked at it. I thought he meant something else by "clean it up" since you already mentioned that the T-cells kill infected cells. ScienceApe (talk) 20:32, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ah, I don't think so. I think he was just explaining that there is more to the immune system's response to viruses than the T-cells I mentioned, and he's absolutely right. --Tango (talk) 20:45, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

And, since no one seems to have bothered, we do have an article, or rather subsection, on this, see Virus#Host defence mechanisms

effeminacy

What is the medical term for males who are effeminate but do not desire to have sex with other males but rather with females? 71.100.0.254 (talk) 20:22, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That doesn't sound like a medical condition. Why do you presume that there should be a medical term for it? -- Coneslayer (talk) 20:35, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This isn't considered a medical condition. You could call such people "effeminate heterosexual males" if you were obsessed with the taxonomy of gender and sexuality. Hey, Gender taxonomy is an article on Wikipedia, though it seems to be mostly about hermaphrodites and not what the OP was asking. Comet Tuttle (talk) 20:50, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It isn't the same thing but some reference from metrosexual might get what you want. Dmcq (talk) 20:57, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, that is what I was thinking. --Mr.98 (talk) 21:59, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It may be a medical condition, some type of intersexuality. Rmhermen (talk) 23:43, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There may be evolutionary advantages in harem species for the effeminate males to sneak around the dominant males. Imagine Reason (talk) 23:55, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I seem to recall that a species of cuttlefish does something like that. While the big males are fighting to figure out who gets the female, a scrawny male changes his color to look like a female, slips past them, mates with the female, then skedaddles before they catch on. StuRat (talk) 06:38, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Interesting idea, but if this success happens with any regularity wouldn't it alter the male cuttlefishes' mating behaviour. The successful male would pass on, through his genes, the successful strategy. Richard Avery (talk) 11:13, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There seems to be a limiting factor: If too many scrawny males use this strategy, then the big males catch on and watch for this, and the "effeminate" strategy no longer works. StuRat (talk) 13:45, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I concur with your hypothesis. As a 'man's man', it aggravates me to the core to see flagrantly effeminate males on TV. It strikes me as a great big desperate ploy and a cheapening of one's birthright. Vranak (talk) 14:45, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

"Gay men who exhibit feminine traits may be at particular risk from men whose masculinity is threatened."[34]. Also, "the most significant influence on negative reactions toward effeminacy in males is homophobia (p<.001) and for male participants, benevolent sexism (p=.004)."[35] Fences&Windows 20:57, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ooh, a scientific study. It must be true! Vranak (talk) 21:40, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This is a science reference desk. If you want to complain about effeminate men, go find a forum. Fences&Windows 20:42, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well, it depends on what you define as regularity. Cheating is stable in a mostly honest environment because the cost to the honest party is not death. It is evolutionarily stable as long as the effeminate males are not caught in their first attempts. Imagine Reason (talk) 14:03, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I've had friends who are sometimes mistaken for gay because of their perceived effeminacy - what they seem to have in common is that all have been brought up by their mothers - I presume their epicenity stems from the fact that their primary role model was female. Adambrowne666 (talk) 13:20, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

To briefly address the original question, don't be silly, of course being effeminate isn't a medical condition. There's an interesting looking article on 'feminine heterosexual men' here, but I've not got full access. On a slight tangent, men with more feminine faces are judged as being more attractive,[36], and women prefer more feminine-looking men as long term partners, though tend more towards masculine-looking men for short term partners and when ovulating:[37]. Fences&Windows 20:57, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

While being a feminine male isn't always a sign of a medical condition, it sometimes is, typically in conjunction with other symptoms. For example, this could be a symptom of Klinefelter Syndrome. StuRat (talk) 01:06, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Good point. There's a good discussion of how Klinefelter's affects physical appearance, behaviour and personality here . Fences&Windows 20:51, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Adam, your observation of effeminate men being brought up by their mother doesn't seem to tally with some 23-year-old research on extremely effeminate boys that "found no evidence that the parents "created" feminine boys":[38] Fences&Windows 21:16, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That study doesn't very directly address Adam's hypothesis. Most (3/4) of the boys in that study were gay, and of the small number (11-ish) of straight boys in the study, it isn't even reported what fraction if any of those boys were raise solely by their mother. There isn't enough information there to make any conclusions about whether straight boys who are raised solely by their mothers wind up behaving more effeminately. My presumption is that gay boys are pretty much born that way, so I see that as a completely separate issue. Red Act (talk) 03:33, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Put another way, my perspective of the study is that it shows that the most common cause of effeminate behavior in boys is being gay. But there isn't enough information in the study to make any conclusions about what the second most common cause of effeminate behavior in boys is. Red Act (talk) 04:00, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Sure, I didn't look for research looking at that directly. Here's a very non-scientific look:[39], and here's some studies: "The female-headed families were found to be similar to the traditional families on a range of measures of quality of parenting and young adults’ psychological adjustment. Where differences were identified between family types, these pointed to more positive family relationships and greater psychological wellbeing among young adults raised in female-headed homes."[40] "The children’s social and emotional development was not negatively affected by the absence of a father, although boys in father-absent families showed more feminine but no less masculine characteristics of gender role behaviour."(my emphasis)[41] "In father-absent homes, mothers' tendency to rely on and pressure their daughters fosters relatively more masculine girls, whereas a lack of father socialization fosters less masculine boys."[42] There's some more on the socialization of gender personality here. Fences&Windows 20:42, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Floor Stain (help!)

A couple nights ago I dropped my Drinking Bird, the glass broke and the contents ( red dye in Dichloromethane ) splashed on my kitchen floor which I assume to be made of Linoleum. I have been unsuccessul in removing the stains, having tried various caustic cleaners, petroleum based removers and even 30% Hydrogen peroxide. Is using pure Dichloromethane my only hope? I know the chemical has probably melted or fused itself with the plastic floor. Thanks for any suggestions. cheers, 10draftsdeep (talk) 20:29, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Our article says it is miscible with many organic solvents, so the petroleum based removers were probably along the right lines. Have you tried things like white spirit or acetone (nail varnish remover)? --Tango (talk) 20:49, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Not yet. Thanks, I'll try some acetone.10draftsdeep (talk) 20:58, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Be careful, though: organic solvents (such as acetone) will dissolve plastics. Test whatever you're using on an out-of-the-way corner first. --Carnildo (talk) 21:42, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Indeed - that applies to any cleaner, but I should probably have said it anyway. --Tango (talk) 22:08, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Will do. Although it appears the Dichloromethane has already removed the top layer of the floor's surface where it landed. Ultimately ,I am starting to think some new flooring may be the final solution.10draftsdeep (talk) 21:49, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Also, if you're planning on using large quantities of acetone, be sure the area is well-ventilated. If it's cold where you are, wait until the hottest part of the day and put a coat on, then open some windows and use the acetone. StuRat (talk) 06:35, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Why not dissolve bleach into a non-aqueous solvent? The problem I think is that your cleaners are all aqueous-based, and CH2Cl2 is non-aqueous. John Riemann Soong (talk) 16:27, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

calculating the pH of a solution with a polyprotic amino acid

Let's say I have an amino acid (not a biological one -- say it's 4-aminobenzoic acid with two pKa's: 2.50 at the +1 state and 4.87 in the +0 state... let's say the concentration is 0.1M. How do I calculate what the pH of the solution will be? Do I use the isoelectric point? John Riemann Soong (talk) 20:44, 6 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'm trying to come up with an equation ... can someone help me. So basically the neutral compound can be deprotonated ... and protonated.

$K_{a1}+K_{a2}=({\frac {{\{AH\}}{\{H^{+}\}}}{\{AH_{2}^{+}\}}}+{\frac {{\{A^{-}\}}{\{H^{+}\}}}{\{AH\}}})$

$K_{a1}+K_{a2}={H^{+}}({\frac {\{AH\}}{\{AH_{2}^{+}\}}}+{\frac {\{A^{-}\}}{\{AH\}}})$

I get stuck around here. I'm trying to some "proton accouting" equations, but I can't wrap my head around it. It would be really nice if there were some way to determine the ratio of AH2+ to A-! John Riemann Soong (talk) 00:08, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

With some further rearranging, I get equations like: $K_{a1}+K_{a2}={H^{+}}({\frac {\{0.1\}-{A^{-}}}{\{AH_{2}^{+}\}}}+{\frac {\{0.1\}-{AH_{2}^{+}}}{\{AH\}}}-2)$

(0.1 is my concentration of my reagent.)

Is an equation like A- + H+ = 0.1 valid here? John Riemann Soong (talk) 00:21, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Think about what the 0.1 M is actually measuring. Usually it's referring to the non-proton/non-hydroxyl portion, and to all of the forms, that is [A^-] + [HA] + [H₂A⁺] = 0.1 M. Usually in these situations defining lots of variables (e.g. [A^-] = h; [HA] = i, [H₂A⁺] = j; [H⁺] = k; etc.) and falling back on algebra in a system of simultaneous equations to find the quantity of interest is a straightforward, if inelegant, approach. -- 128.104.112.237 (talk) 00:26, 11 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

November 7

Name that chemical

When I started working here in the semi-conductor manufacturing business, I was told of a chemical that wouldn't harm skin if the skin came in contact with the chemical. What would happen though, is that the chemical would soak into the tissue and settle in the person's bones and that's where it would cause considerable pain. I've looked it up before but it's been years. Can anyone remind me what this chemical is? Dismas|^(talk) 05:58, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Hydrofluoric acid. Truthforitsownsake (talk) 06:19, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Sounds a lot like benzene. Benzene causes bone marrow damage, can be absorbed through the skin,[43] and is used in the semiconductor industry.[44] Red Act (talk) 06:31, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks for the info about benzene but hydrofluoric was the one I was thinking of. Thanks, Dismas|^(talk) 11:35, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

is it possible I received permament eye damage from briefly handling apple's laser mouse at an Apple store.

This question has been removed. Per the reference desk guidelines, the reference desk is not an appropriate place to request medical, legal or other professional advice, including any kind of medical diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment recommendations. For such advice, please see a qualified professional. If you don't believe this is such a request, please explain what you meant to ask, either here or on the Reference Desk's talk page.

This removal is discussed here. -- Scray (talk) 14:18, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Taxonomy

Could please someone provide the taxonomic name of these flowers? Thanks in advance! -- Etienne (talk) 13:55, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Wow, a botany question that I can actually answer -- the first time ever! The first one looks like common madia, better known as tarweed. The picture in the common madia article doesn't look the same, but I think I'm right, it's a pretty common flower here in the Bay Area. (If not common madia, then some other type of madia, there are a ton of them.) I don't know what the second one is. Looie496 (talk) 17:31, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The second one is cosmos_bipinnatus, I also have some doubts that the first is common madia. Richard Avery (talk) 18:44, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Thank you! -- Etienne (talk) 18:29, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Is lightning a spark?

Arguing definition is fun! Vimescarrot (talk) 15:59, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Slow-motion footage of lightning (Please don't embed 2MB animated GIFs to the Ref Desk... some of us don't have the fastest connections and it screws up the whole page. Changed from embedded image to link... --Mr.98 (talk) 18:13, 7 November 2009 (UTC).)[reply]

As fun as it may be, the ref desk is not a chat room or a place for debates. Though I don't see what there is to argue about: see Electrostatic_discharge#Sparks. —Akrabbim^talk 16:26, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes. Both "lightning" and "sparks" are essentially electrostatic discharges. The only significant difference is perhaps that of intensity: lightning is actually an electric arc, while a "spark" technically need not "plasma-ize" the air it passes through (apparently, at least according to the intro of the Corona discharge article...).

In any case, according to Electrostatic discharge#Sparks:"Perhaps the best known example of a natural spark is a lightning strike."

Wikiscient 16:36, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I saw the discharge article, but wanted to check with you to make sure the article was right. Sorry, I didn't mean to imply I wanted to spark (ha!) an argument with you; I'm arguing with someone else. Thanks for the responses. Vimescarrot (talk) 16:43, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well in that case, argue your heart out! —Akrabbim^talk 16:49, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think the best way to look at it is: lightning is a "spark," but not all sparks are lightning... ;) Wikiscient 16:51, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That animated GIF of the lightning is fake, right? Tempshill (talk) 19:42, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think it's real. And how dare people not wait for me to get to this question. SpinningSpark 21:47, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I would love to know the detail of how it was filmed. How fast a camera is being used there? APL (talk) 00:03, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Don't know about that gif, but Ultraslo uses 3000 FPS. That's not the only slow-motion lightning video on Youtube, and many put their FPS in their description. Vimescarrot (talk) 00:31, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

We used cameras (and camera-like devices) with frame rates as high as 15,000 frames per second, to record lightning and lightning-related transient luminous events. Often, these high-data-rate optical devices needed electronic triggers to activate them and initiate a burst-mode recording. Nimur (talk) 03:57, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ben Franklin's and others' research in the 1750's indicates an affirmative answer. Edison (talk) 04:04, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Torch lights

Will shining 2 torch lights into a particular area make the resulting light brighter? Clover345 (talk) 17:37, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes. It won't, however, make it look twice as bright. The human eye perceives brightness logarithmicly, that means doubling the actual brightness (by shining twice as much light at it) will make it look a fixed amount brighter (ie. it will add something to the brightness rather than multiply the brightness by 2). See Weber–Fechner law#The case of vision. --Tango (talk) 18:05, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Also, don't forget interference (as shown by Young's slit experiment. Shutting off a light in the room will lower the overall amount of light in the room, but the areas that were previously in the interference path of multiple light sources might actually get brighter. John Riemann Soong (talk) 23:11, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That's a really terrible answer! Do you have any idea how narrow those interference regions are? No! Of course you don't or you'd never have said that. You'd need a microscope to see them. Where are these "slits" that are necessary for the effect to work? Do you realize that flashlight bulbs or flashlight LED's are not point sources - and they aren't monochromatic and they aren't coherent? Have you ever heard of diffuse scattering? A little knowledge is a dangerous thing! It is absolutely not the case that turning on a second flashlight will make any measurable part of the room measurably darker. Your answer is confusing and flat out incorrect. Tango had it right - the end. SteveBaker (talk) 23:48, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well deserved thanks to our bright knight for saving this answer! DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 14:59, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Why do my glasses have a shadow?

My eyeglasses are transparent and yet when it's very bright and light is angled properly, the lenses have a shadow. Why is that? 69.77.250.210 (talk) 19:13, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Lenses work by difraction, bending and redirecting the incident light. There is still the same amount of light hitting the lens, but because it is not going "straight through", the area straight through is not as brightly illuminated as the surrounding area that is directly illuminated. DMacks (talk) 19:26, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It could also be because they aren't perfectly transparent. The diffraction (note spelling!) can cause some bright spots which are brighter than the surrounding area, this means the average brightness is about the same. --Tango (talk) 19:29, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Thank goodness redirects help when my riting is not good. DMacks (talk) 19:32, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, diffraction is the answer. See also Lens (optics) and Caustic (optics). Red Act (talk) 19:45, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

My eyeglasses work by refraction, not diffraction. -- Coneslayer (talk) 20:10, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Note as well that even in the absence of diffraction effects your lenses aren't perfectly transparent, and they do not transmit all of the light that strikes them. Depending on the material the lenses are made from, and what coatings have been applied, somewhere in the neighbourhood of 10% of the incident light is going to be reflected or absorbed. TenOfAllTrades(talk) 19:51, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

As far as I know no corrective glasses work by diffraction but rather refraction. I'm assuming the OP has myopia as my glasses do the same thing too. If you try moving it closer or further to the surface on which the shadow projects to, you can see that the shadow changes brightness and you may notice a slight ring of light surrounding the shadow. In essence myopia corrective lenses makes parallel rays of light divergent, so that if you shine a light through it the rays now have to cover a larger area, so the area directly under the lens is darker than the surrounding. Just outside this "shadow" you can maybe see a slight halo. This is the place where it receives light from both the divergent rays from the lenses and also directly from your light source. Hyperopia corrective lenses are the opposite, they're like magnifying glasses and will form a bright spot in the centre when you try the same thing. --antilived^{T | C | G} 23:13, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Wow, that's really bizarre that four of us used the wrong word! On a multiple choice test, I'd bet all four of us would correctly answer that lenses work by refraction, not diffraction. But somehow the wrong word stuck once it entered our heads. It's like some kind of groupthink or something. Red Act (talk) 01:32, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yikes! Well at least I can add "able to control brains by remote control" to my CV. DMacks (talk) 18:20, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You could be a vampire. Vampires, and their attire/accessories, don't cast shadows when they normally would, but do cast shadows when they normally wouldn't. Can you see your reflection in a mirror? 92.230.64.60 (talk) 18:18, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

All together now: Wikipedia has an article about that. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 19:33, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Batteries in plastic bags

If I throw multiple AAA batteries or AA batteries in plastic bags, like Ziploc bags, will a circuit, however weak, be formed by means of the plastic bag touching the ends; and will the batteries deplete faster than if I throw them in a drawer, or loose in a plastic tub, or in a paper bag? Tempshill (talk) 19:41, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'd say there would be no noticeable difference, since plastic is essentially an insulator. That is, unless the plastic is wet. StuRat (talk) 19:46, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A clean dry plastic bag will not complete a circuit. There is a remote possibility that a number of batteries could arrange themselves to complete a circuit. Edison (talk) 20:15, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes agreed, unless the bag is an antistatic bag used for storing electronic parts. These are usually either obviously metallic or else are slightly pink. @Edison, to form a complete loop the batteries need space enough to form something like a 3-foot circle - bigger than most plastic bags, so unlikely. In the old days the negative terminal of the battery, which is also the case, appeared as a ring around the positive terminal so it was very easy to short them out. All good quality brands now have insulated cases so this can no longer happen. SpinningSpark 21:37, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Nine-volt batteries are also very prone to being shorted if stored loosely, due to the proximity of the terminals. Mitch Ames (talk) 01:08, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Many small cells have a steel cylinder around them, like Duracell, perhaps painted, which could complete a circuit unless the paint is a good insulator. A 9 volt is the most likely culprit to short in a bag of batteries, agreed, or any cells in a pocket with change and keys (not the same as the OP's scenario). Edison (talk) 04:03, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I just checked with a multi-meter, I tried a AA Duracell and a AAA Walgreens, both were good insulators except at their ends. (Even though they were both visibly shiny.) I suspect that they do it like that for specifically that reason.

Incidentally, it's not paint, it's a plastic wrapper. APL (talk) 07:25, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, plastic, at least on well known quality brands. It is possible to get through it to the metal if you have sharp meter probes but you have to push hard. For this to happen accidentally in a plastic bag would require the battery to be very severely and visibly obviously damaged. Agreed 9 volt batteries are the exception here (and other rarer types with both terminals on the same side), an unprotected pocket full of them can succeed in getting hot enough to burn your skin. SpinningSpark 09:58, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Cylindrical cells I checked all have an insulating plastic wrapper around the steel outer casing, however shiny and metallic it looks, since otherwise it would short the + and - terminals. There is an insulating fiber washer between the - terminal and the steel surround, with the wrapper covering it. However, on Duracell 9 volt batteries, there is no plactic wrapper, just painted steel. In the 9 volt, there is an insulating fiber piece at the end between the steel case and the + and - terminals, so 9 volters are a short circuit risk even if the contact is just with the outer case. The paint layer is insulating but easily scratched through. Edison (talk) 15:48, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I took these photos of animals for WP, but I'm not sure what they all are =(

If anyone knows who any of these guys are it would be greatly appreciated and would probably help various taxa get an image! Best regards, -Craig Pemberton (talk) 21:24, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There are 174 pictures in there. Which ones do you want identified?! It would be a good idea to post the ones you want identified as thumbnails on this page, with numbers or tags of some sort; otherwise we may not even be talking about the same picture at any given instant. Please only post the best ones. --Dr Dima (talk) 21:45, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Those are pretty nice, but it's clear you know what a lot of them are—you're making me kind of have to wade through them all on the off-chance I will find one of the ones you don't know and then will know what it is. You could facilitate this a little bit... (And I will disagree with Dr Dima that posting all of them is probably useful, though obviously not all will end up in articles. As a graphic designer, I have gotten a LOT of use out of high-res images on Commons that were not the "best" but were well categorized. Web space is cheap! But the blurry little beetle probably isn't worth uploading.) Your photo of the convergent evolution image should not be uploaded (the substantive content is copyrighted by the museum unless otherwise indicated—taking a new picture of a copyright image does not substantially change its copyright status). --Mr.98 (talk) 21:49, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Okay. Should I upload some to commons, and make a gallery here? Or should I just link the most mysterious ones? Is it alright to leave the convergent evolution one on Flickr? Thanks for the feedback! -Craig Pemberton (talk) 22:07, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

As I said, you should only upload the best ones; definitely not all of them!!! Sorry if that was not clear. Look for similar pictures available in Wikimedia Commons, and only upload ones that are better than the ones already found in Commons. Do not upload any of the unsharp / unclear / partially obstructed ones. Also, if you have there a picture of critter not represented in Commons at all, you can upload that, as well. That should shorten your list from 174 to anything between 2 and 20. --Dr Dima (talk) 22:29, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

To answer your question on copyright, you will be breaching someone's copyright with the poster uploaded to Flickr (except in the unlikely event that it has a free licence). That is nothing to do with Wikipedia of course, that is between you, the museum and Flckr. sorry, I do not know what any of them are - except the first one, that's a dog. SpinningSpark 10:12, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Rechargeable batteries

I've noticed that if the battery in my DS dies and I'm somewhere where I can't recharge it, the battery will gradually build up a charge again by itself. Why is this? --70.247.249.87 (talk) 21:51, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Me too -- my phone will show a low battery level, then suddenly go back up. I also notice that while it's charging and the battery level is say, 70%, disconnecting the charger will make it rise to 80% -- but connecting it back again will make it drop to 70%. My hypothesis is that what is happening that less of the battery capacity becomes visible to the phone after the charger disconnecs, but this hidden capacity is later "rediscovered"? John Riemann Soong (talk) 23:21, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There is a phenomenon in many kinds of battery called "polarization" - it has the effect of causing the battery to lose power before it's actually totally dead. Turning the thing off and letting it recover for a few seconds allow you to get a little more use out of the battery. You can see this effect in all sorts of batteries and in all sorts of situation - so it doesn't surprise me that you're seeing it in your Nintendo DS. To be 100% clear though - the battery isn't "building up a charge" - it always had that charge - it just wouldn't let you use it. It doesn't matter how long you wait beyond the first few tens of seconds, you get to use that last little bit that was in the battery - and that's it. SteveBaker (talk) 23:22, 7 November 2009 (UTC) Added link to article. Mitch Ames (talk) 01:16, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

So how is it a DS which I played out of battery has twice now managed to "build up" in excess of an hours' charge? I know I haven't charged it without remembering because I lost the charger. Vimescarrot (talk) 00:14, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For what it's worth, I've also noticed this phenomena with my DS. If I run the battery down until it shuts itself off and refuses to turn back on, and then leave it off for a while. (Ten seconds isn't enough, but ten minutes is) I can usually get at least another half hour of play out of it. Sometimes I can do this a few times before it stops working entirely. Must be a quirk of these batteries as they age. They "die" well before they're actually "empty". APL (talk) 00:50, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I have to leave mine for days or more to get this result. Vimescarrot (talk) 01:52, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Note the important distinction between battery is dead and control electronics have shut down the battery. The battery's life-cycle and charge cycle will cause its voltage and current capacity to vary through its usable life; the control electronics (at the very least, an LVDO regulator) will shut the entire device down until it detects that the battery is able to operate. Sophisticated battery management circuitry may even include software to estimate the chemical lifecycle of the battery (think ACPI, though the Nintendo DS probably uses a simpler scheme); so it will make a best-guess based on current measurements and expected values. When current battery measurements do not match up to the estimated values (e.g. because of manufacturing tolerances; temperature; or poor internal modeling for the estimates) unknown behavior may result (like premature shutdowns or reporting incorrect battery levels). Chances are good that the battery has enough "juice" (current-capacity and voltage) to actually operate your device, but not enough to trigger an "all-clear" from the over-zealous power regulation circuitry. When a temperature change or just a few minutes/hours of rest for the battery's chemical boost the voltage levels back above the regulated threshold, the device works fine again. My bet is that the actual voltage level didn't change by very much - but it was hovering very close to a designed safety threshold to prevent brownout. Nimur (talk) 17:05, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Luxon theory concerning tardyons

Does Wikipedia have any information on luxon theory, specifically on their relationship to tardyons? —Preceding unsigned comment added by Active Galactic Nuclei (talk • contribs) 22:03, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A "luxon" is a massless particle - either a photon or a gluon. Since there are no free gluons - you might as well say skip the fancy language and say "photon" instead of "luxon". Tardyon is another neologism used (rarely) to mean anything that's moving slower than light - which is to say: Everything except photons. So you're asking whether there is information on photon theory, specifically as they relate to all normal matter? Well, yes, of course! How light and other electromagnetic radiation interacts with matter? Start with Newton - work your way forwards. SteveBaker (talk) 22:28, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A Google search for "luxon theory" only turned up www.tardyon.de, which I guess is what prompted this question. It's a crackpot site. However, it's right when it says that "tardyons are luxons". In field theory (classical or quantum) it's useful to describe massive waves as massless waves that interact with each other in a certain way. Specifically, a wave can be divided into "left-handed" and "right-handed" parts which individually propagate at the speed of light, and the mass (if any) shows up as an interaction between those parts. In the Standard Model that interaction also involves the Higgs field, which is why the Higgs is said to "give mass" to the particles. -- BenRG (talk) 23:14, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Here was my starting point: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Massless_particle. I was hoping for anything more you might have on it? —Preceding unsigned comment added by Active Galactic Nuclei (talk • contribs) 23:46, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I removed the reference to the "luxon theory" site. I'm not sure what to add to what I and SteveBaker already said; do you have a more specific question? -- BenRG (talk) 14:23, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The text and link that you removed were the issue, Thank you. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Active Galactic Nuclei (talk • contribs) 18:02, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

why isn't the Wolf-Kishner reduction or the Clemmensen reduction used for meth synthesis?

Bleach (sodium hypochlorite -- failing that one could fall back to Swern oxidation) and W-K or Clemmensen would seem to do the job quite nicely. No phosphine gas? Or is red phosphorus much cheaper? (This is purely out of curiosity as I reduce an alcohol to a C-H bond for the umpteenth time on paper...) John Riemann Soong (talk) 23:39, 7 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Bleach has its own problems, see Bleach#Chemical interactions. My guess is that most people home-brewing their own crystal meth aren't exactly familiar with various reaction pathways that get them their product. Likely one could do it safer with the right materials. But really, these guys are just following a recipe without knowing why they do each step, and what all the process is about. --Jayron32 01:24, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well, couldn't the amine group be protected under acidic conditions? Or is the N-H bond that reacts? Plus even if one gets a chlorinated amine, wouldn't the chlorines be relatively easy to take off in the presence of acid, seeing how chloride a good leaving group? John Riemann Soong (talk) 01:49, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Again, you're asking why people don't follow good organic synthesis procedures when they are brewing crystal meth in their garage. The answer is because they aren't chemists; they're gap-toothed hillbillies who didn't finish the 4th grade and are following a recipe they found on the internet. People engaged in illegal activities don't often have the time and resources to do proper, standardized experiments to work out alternate pathways. They have a recipe, they follow it, they blow up their garage when they screw up. Questioning why they don't "do it right" misses the point. It was much the same with white lightning compared to legal, regulated booze. --Jayron32 02:00, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well 2 questions. Does bleach oxidise alcohols under acidic conditions? How do you lyse a quartenary ammonium salt? I mean, street drug syntheses often have a fair amount of pragmatics built into them -- clearly there are clandestine chemists who cooperate with gangs or new synthesis techniques wouldn't pop up now and then. John Riemann Soong (talk) 02:06, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Bleach-oxidation borneol→camphor using acetic acid as (co)solvent is an undergrad lab experiment. Hypochlorous acid is a stronger oxidant than hypochlorite but is less stable in solution. Exact oxidizing mechanism is a bit complicated IIRC (maybe some radical character, can't remember), but it's approximately formation and then E2-like decomposition of H-C(R₂)-O-Cl similar to Swern and Cr(VI) oxidants. But this reagent mixture sounds like a perfect way to oxidize an amine→chloramine too (that's one of the reaction types that happens in swimming pools). DMacks (talk) 14:31, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

So what would prevent you from carrying out the oxidation under acidic conditions? (Add vinegar, then sodium hypochlorite?) If the amine is R-NH2+-R I would think it couldn't quite do a nucleophilic attack on OCl-. My only worry was that the acidity would prevent the alcohol proton from leaving. John Riemann Soong (talk) 14:44, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Some people making crystal meth are chemists. Someone has to make the recipes. In fact I would think there'd be a lot of money in finding cheaper, safer and easier ways to produce illegal drugs in your basement. Rckrone (talk) 04:48, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

How should a chemist make money by creating a cheap easy method to synthezise meth? Selling the idea on ebay or publish it as a book? The only way is to do it on his own in his basement, and that is a risk a well trained person with a good job will not take.--Stone (talk) 14:42, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There do exist circumstances that sometimes occur in people's lives, that could cause a well-trained chemist to become desperate enough to become a meth cook. The circumstances in Breaking Bad, for example, seem fairly plausible to me. There are also psychological conditions that would make some people enjoy, or at least not fear, the risks involved with being a meth cook, to the extent that they would turn to that from a career in chemistry, even without being desperate. After all, the money is great (until you get caught or die). All it would take is an underestimation of the risks involved, which is a very common thing to do, especially among younger people. Red Act (talk) 16:20, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

energy vs frequency

The articles on frequency and energy confirm the increased frequency requires or represents increased energy but where can I find a plot of energy versus frequency for both sound and electromagnetic waves and all types of vibrations from zero frequency to Gamma and Cosmic rays? 71.100.0.254 (talk) 23:46, 7 November 2009 (UTC) [reply]

For light the formula is: E=hf, where E is energy per photon, h is Planck's constant and f is frequency. That holds for any EM radiation. Cosmic rays are just particles, they aren't usually thought of as waves (although you can get a frequency from the de Broglie wavelength if you want to, in which case the same formula will hold as for light). For sound, you can't divide it into particles, so there isn't a discrete energy. There is sound energy flux (not a great article, though...), which is the amount of energy to pass through a unit area in a unit time. --Tango (talk) 00:25, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Actually, sound felt left out of the whole "wave-particle duality" party, so it went and got itself its own sound particle. Well, sort of. But there is a particle equivalent for vibrational energy just like there is one for electromagnetic energy. --Jayron32 01:19, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Big "sort of"! As the first line of that article says, it only applies is a solid crystal lattice. We usually think of sound as being carried by air, since that is what we can hear, and air isn't a solid crystal lattice. --Tango (talk) 02:05, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

But what about a graph... x = frequency, y = energy? 71.100.0.254 (talk) —Preceding undated comment added 01:47, 8 November 2009 (UTC).[reply]

They're proportional, so it's a straight line, and h is positive, so it goes from bottom left to top right. --Tango (talk) 02:05, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

So then hf=mc²...? 71.100.0.254 (talk) 02:39, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Kind of. That only works if you take m as relativistic mass. The rest mass of a photon is zero. --Tango (talk) 02:43, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In my mind it appears I was actually thinking of a curve so I must have been thing of wavelength and not frequency. Anyway the would mean that since wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency that there must be a limit on the shortness of a wavelength (the shortest possible wavelength) to equal the greatest amount of relativistic energy for every particle? 71.100.0.254 (talk) 02:47, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Mathematically, there is no limit to how small a wavelength can be, or therefore how much energy a photon can have. However, any wavelength shorter than a Planck length is likely to be meaningless, so the universe appears to have a practical limit built in. --Jayron32 02:53, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Somehow I'm thinking that at that wavelength something mysterious happens like the propagation in a single direction stops and you get a stationary oscillation that is self containing otherwise known as energy in the form of mass. Sort of like a cowboy rope trick where the rope spins in a loop and then the loop moves forward and backward or some such crazy back and forth but stationary relationship like that. 71.100.0.254 (talk) 03:15, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A single photon with wavelength equal to the Planck length would have energy equivalent to about 10^-7 kg, which is much larger than any of the particles we know of that make up matter. I don't think people really know what would happen at energy levels that high. Rckrone (talk) 07:05, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

We don't know what happens at the Planck length; we don't even know if the Planck length is special at all. If special relativity is valid (locally) then photons with Planck-length wavelengths are just like any other photons. Special relativity might be wrong, but so far there's no evidence that it is. Actually, the GLAST/Fermi project recently reported data from GRB 090510 that strongly constrains violations of special relativity at the Planck length. -- BenRG (talk) 14:09, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's not so much that SR could be wrong, it is that it is incomplete. SR doesn't explain the fringes we see when beaming electrons or individual photons or whatever through a double slit. We know that things happen on small scales that SR doesn't explain, the question is what actually happens at those scales and how small we need to get to see weird things. --Tango (talk) 20:14, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

By SR I really meant Lorentz invariance, which holds exactly in the Standard Model. There's no evidence (yet) that Lorentz invariance fails at any length scale. The threshold where things start to look quantum has more to do with temperature than distance. -- BenRG (talk) 01:52, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

November 8

Convict Fish

In the BBC Life natural world documentary about fish there is a segment about a fish called the "convict fish", this is the clip [45] and I was trying to find out more about it and the like, however searches only ield the convict chichlids, which seem quite different and no where near as peculiar. Any idea what its taxonomical name is / any info on it? MedicRoo (talk) 01:09, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See this page. We have an article at Pholidichthys leucotaenia, but it's not very informative. Deor (talk) 01:57, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Nimh substitute for Nicad?

Can an Nimh battery of the same voltage and millampere-hour rating be used to replace a Nicad battery in a cordless phone? I thought not, because the charging arrangements can be different. Edison (talk) 03:59, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes. I've done it many times, it works just fine. And you can (and should) use a larger milliamp rating too. Most (well, all the ones I looked at) cordless phone batteries are just AA or AAA batteries attached to a special connector. You can buy regular rechargeable AAA NiMh batteries and use them (it's a bit tough to solder - don't let the battery get hot). Ariel. (talk) 05:24, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Kinematics Question

A rock is dropped from a seacliff and the sound of it striking the ocean is heard 3.0 s later. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, how high is the cliff? The answer is 41 meters, but I don't know how to get it. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 174.6.144.211 (talk) 04:21, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Call the height of the cliff h. Then work out how long it will take to fall that far (remember your constant acceleration formulae?) and how long it will take for the sound to travel that far. Then add them together and set it equal to 3 and solve for h. --Tango (talk) 04:35, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The question is ambiguous and poorly framed because it does not specify where the listener is. The sound might well be heard by someone at the water level below the cliff, or 100 meters from the cliff in a boat, just as it might be heard by someone on the cliff. Edison (talk) 04:53, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The question only makes sense if they are listening from the top of the cliff. If they are at the water level below the cliff it would be a trick question, since the sound thing wouldn't add anything. If they are in a boat elsewhere on the water then there isn't enough information in the question to answer it. While it would be good if the question were more precise we shouldn't over analyse things - if it is obvious what the question means then it is much better to answer it rather than pick holes in it. --Tango (talk) 05:15, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(ec) The speed of sound is a red herring. Solve the problem assuming the speed of sound is instantaneous and see how it works out. Matt Deres (talk) 04:56, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I assume the problem is that the correction for the error caused by the speed of sound is kind of nonlinear. If you simply subtract away the error caused and add it back to the time (say 3.12 seconds) that changes your answer and now you have to iteratively calculate your solution. John Riemann Soong (talk) 05:01, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The additional term is absolutely not nonlinear (even though it is quadratic). Note the important difference between the meanings of linearity. Your suggestion to use an iterated approach indicates that you are confusing the definitions. This physics problem is described by a quadratic equation in time (t) (or in height h), which is (strangely) a linear equation. It is unfortunate that the word "linear" has two different meanings. The solution, though, is obtained by standard quadratic formula or as shown below by Gandalf and others. Nimur (talk) 17:14, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That's not true. The speed of sound will make a difference. If the speed of sound were instantaneous you would get a larger value for the height of the cliff. --Tango (talk) 05:15, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Wrong direction oops. But you might still see what I'm saying. The order of magnitude of the error looks to be around 10%, though the precise value of that error is unknown to me. (What is the error of the error?) John Riemann Soong (talk) 06:00, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The speed of sound is definitely not a red herring, as sound moves slowly enough to make a significant impact on the solution. The speed of light, however, is fast enough to be assumed to be instantaneous in such a problem. StuRat (talk) 13:08, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The sound is going to reach you in about a tenth of a second; just barely within the significant figures provided. I agree that you could add that to the equation, but I don't see the point if you're not going to deal with much larger factors such as the placement of the dropper/listener(s) and the drag from the air, including up-drafts - not to mention the height of the waves below. Matt Deres (talk) 20:08, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A nice problem. Expanding on Tango's approach: If the rock takes time t1 to fall the height h and the sound takes a further time t2 to reach the top of the cliff (making the assumption that the listener is at the top of the cliff) then t1 + t2 = 3 s. Substitute expressions for t1 and t2 in terms of h and you get an equation in h and sqrt(h). Rearrange and square both sides and you get a quadratic in h. Solve and throw away a spurious solutuion introduced by squaring both sides, and you are left with a value for h that is a little under 41 m. If you assume t2 is 0, then you get 44 m, which is a significant difference. Gandalf61 (talk) 13:30, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Or you can do it in an iterative fashion, as John Riemann Soong suggested. That makes the math much simpler, especially if you only want a couple significant figures (and, really, any more than that is spurious accuracy anyway, when someone is timing how long it takes them to hear something, which can't be very accurate). In the case of a multiple choice test, you also have the option of plugging in the values provided to see which gives you the right total time. (You might say this is cheating, but knowing how to check the answers provided by others is also a valuable skill.) StuRat (talk) 17:53, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I would strongly recommend that technique in multiple choice tests. Trying to work out the right answer is often a waste of time, it is much quicker to just work out which of the options is right. Even if you can't narrow it down to one answer all you need to do is rule out one or two options on each question to make random guessing of the other options likely to give you a pass mark (obviously it depends on the pass mark, how many options you are given and whether marks are deducted for incorrect answers). Maths isn't usually done using multiple choice, though, since the method is usually more important than the final answer. --Tango (talk) 19:03, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

are quantised values always rational?

The cardinality of the continuum provides much more than the cardinality of the natural numbers... if the wavelength of a photon is 1500/pi nm, and a HOMO-LUMO gap of a fluorescent molecule is 1500/(pi+1/e^99) nm, will excitation occur? John Riemann Soong (talk) 05:06, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think the difference in length there (I haven't actually calculated it) will be less than the Planck length, which means they can be assumed to be equal. Quoting lengths at greater precision than +/- the Planck length is pretty meaningless. --Tango (talk) 05:19, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That said, the largest difference that still allows for excitation is probably larger than the Planck length, otherwise it would hardly ever occur. I know virtually nothing about HOMO-LUMO gaps, though, so I'll have to let someone else give a more specific answer to that problem. In general though, nothing is exact in physics, so we can always choose to use a countable subset of the real numbers (eg. truncate all decimals after a few hundred places, it won't make any difference to anything - a few dozen places would probably suffice for almost everything). --Tango (talk) 05:23, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Basically I wonder how it is possible that when I set my photoreaction chamber for say, 380 nm, how it's possible that orbital excitation ever be possible. I understand that quite a sharp distribution can be produced, but how likely is that the photons generated will ever be of the 380.0501292201285028(...) nm wavelength required for excitation? I understand that the Boltzmann distribution and random heat may kick in and provide that little more or little less of energy required to make the transition (e.g. within a certain difference environmental fluctuations can "compensate"), but then this also asks the question whether the environmental fluctuations themselves are rational. I know that a lot of time the Boltzmann distribution of molecular velocities spans such a large range of possible values that we call it a continuum -- but are those values countable? John Riemann Soong (talk) 05:53, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There is an energy-time uncertainty analogous to the position-momentum uncertainty (Heisenberg's uncertainty principle), so a energy difference of ΔE = c*h/(1500*e^99) = 1.34E-71 J means that the "uncertainty in time" - that is, the time it takes for the transition to occur, is Δt = ℏ/(2 ΔE) = 3.94E+36 seconds. So unless your typical observing times are of that order of magnitude, you don't need to worry about such a deviation. Icek (talk) 11:47, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

And you can think of it in a different way: If you have your light source producing the light of this specific frequency for some relatively short time period (like a second, an hour or a year). The actual frequencies that the light source produces are determined by a Fourier transformation of the amplitude of the electrical field; for your frequency f, the electrical field is ideally sin(2πf t), but the light source is only turned on for a finite amount of time and has some intensity profile when being turned on and of (usually not going from zero to full intensity and back down to zero abruptly, but even if it does, my argument still applies), and therefore some function g(t) which is zero for the time the light source is turned off has to be multiplied with sin(2πf t) in order to get the real amplitude of the electrical field. Now Fourier transform the resulting function - you will get a frequency spectrum with a sharp peak at your frequency f, but the width is still far larger than the deviation in wavelength/frequency you mentioned. Icek (talk) 12:06, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

And of course, the relevant time is not the time the light source is turned on, but its coherence time, if it is shorter. Icek (talk) 12:11, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I still have the issue of cardinality. The frequency spectrum may be treated as continuous, but are the actual elements of the spectrum rational? The number of elements must be finite: if I have a 100W bulb releasing 380 nm (ish) photons, there can only be 1.9 * 10^20 photons that are released every second. But the number of possible values near 380 nm is uncountably infinite. Why should any of those photons match my energy gap? John Riemann Soong (talk) 14:49, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Countably vs. uncountably infinite is irrelevant here. Photons do not have a precise frequency. It's only possible to measure the frequency of a photon for some amount of time that isn't arbitrarily large. So from the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, it's only meaningful to talk about the frequency of a photon to a precision that isn't arbitrarily small. It's not like the difference between two rational numbers, which can be arbitrarily small. Put another way, the number of distinguishably different frequencies that a photon can have isn't even countably infinite. There exists a very large but finite set of frequencies, such that any photon will always be measured to match a nonempty subset of those frequencies, accurate to the uncertainty of the frequency of the photon. Red Act (talk) 15:43, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The key point is that they don't need to exactly match your energy gap since nothing is exact in physics. You can work out a degree of precision that is high enough to make absolutely no difference to your experiment (not just negligible difference, but no difference, since the error will be less than the inherent error caused by the laws of physics). That means you can always model the frequencies as rational numbers (by truncating the decimal expression, say). Alternatively, you could model them as irrational numbers of the form pi*q (or any number of other forms) where q is rational, in which case there are still only countably many. So, the physical quantities aren't inherently rational numbers, they are just imprecise enough that we can model them using a countably subset of the reals - we get to choose which subset, within reason. --Tango (talk) 19:11, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Interactions rarely happen in isolation. In the case of a photon striking a molecule, for example, in addition to electronic excitations, you can also transfer kinetic energy, and excite rotational or vibrational states. The energy in the transition can be fuzzy in part because it doesn't all have to come from or go to the same place. Dragons flight (talk) 20:41, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

pharmaceutical questions

Q 1.what are the application of two and three component system in formulation of liquid dosage form? Q 2.what are the application of HLB in the formulation of W/O and O/W emulsions?

thank you for your help,

your sincerly

getye —Preceding unsigned comment added by Getisha (talk • contribs) 11:54, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This sounds a bit like a homework question - if that is the case, then as suggested at the top of this page please show where you've gotten stuck after exerting some effort, and we'll try to get you un-stuck. In any case, we do have a very informative article on emulsions, which includes medical/pharmaceutical applications. -- Scray (talk) 15:13, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

aminoacyl-tRNA bond

How in the world is this a "high energy bond"? A sugar alkoxide doesn't look like a very good leaving group to me -- and IIRC the amino acid is not attached via the anomeric carbon. John Riemann Soong (talk) 12:11, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You should have access to your own reference desk for all these scary questions with words of which I've never heard! DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 15:02, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I don't know the answer to the question, but Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase and Transfer RNA say the amino acid is attached as an ester linkage on 3'OH terminus of tRNA chain, which is an adenosine ribose ring. Man, our Transfer RNA and Aminoacyl-tRNA articles need help--so full of vague biochemistry descriptors of the actual amino-acyl key! DMacks (talk) 06:38, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A sugar alkoxide ... I can't see how RO- is a good leaving group simply because it's on a sugar. John Riemann Soong (talk) 10:53, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Occam's razor + envenomation immunity

How would envenomation immunity be preferentially beneficial for only the vast minutia of the species, such as mongooses and opossums? I'm not attacking evolutionary theory per se...I was just wondering what someone from a non-theistic perspective would say. Pardon me if this is merely another form of an 'inexplainable intermediate form' question.

Ah, yes -- second question -- is this merely another form of the same question that begs to know how inexplainable intermediate forms can lead to otherwise explainable end forms? DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 15:18, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The key phrase from the article is "feeds on snakes". Only a minority of species feed on snakes. Looie496 (talk) 15:38, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In case it's not obvious to all readers, Looie496 is referring to the section on immunity among other animals in the Snake venom article. I agree that this is pretty straightforward. One could surmise that some animals got into fights with venomous snakes, and those that had genetic variations that favored survival in such encounters lived to reproduce, and some of those animals gained a food source (venomous snakes). It's clear that frequent and intense selective pressures strongly drive evolution. -- Scray (talk) 15:57, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

So it's because of the overwhelming environmental pressure on snake-eaters to be able to profitably and safely consume their dinners that such mutations would be favored -- whereas non snake-eaters, albeit standing to benefit at large from envenomation immunity, have no such pressure (in the form of removal by of individuals by envenomation death from the population who do not possess such a mutation).

Would it be begging a question to ask why any other organisms don't develop protective entities against their main damage source -- like to ask why all pinnipeds don't possess defensive tusks to defend against shark attacks? Basically, the concept of natural selection allows us to explain the world -- but we do not use it to ask why not? DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 16:04, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For something to be selected for, it needs:

a) to be present in the population (via mutation, for example)

b) things with it to produce more surviving offspring than those without it, in the form it currently is (not the form that will be arrived at after 100 generations of selection)

Part of (b) is not only that there is an advantage to this thing, but that the advantages outweigh the disadvantages including use of resources. It is perfectly valid to ask 'why not?', but very often the answer is that the cost (in terms of food/energy, time, etc) is greater than the advantage. Organisms do develop protective measures against their main damage source if this reduces the number of surviving offspring, but some forms of defence interfere with others. For example, the Leopard Seal. Leopard seals are very fast swimmers, and they have all sorts of adaptations to allow them to swim faster. They also have sharp teeth, which do not interfere with their ability to swim fast. Let us suppose a leopard seal were born with the beginnings of defensive tusks: larger teeth which did not fit completely inside its closed mouth, but protruded. This leopard seal would be less streamlined than other leopard seals, and thus slower at swimming away from sharks. It would be more likely to be caught by an attacking shark, and those little semi-tusks would be very little good at stopping the shark from eating it. So, this seal with proto-tusks would be less likely to survive to produce offspring, because the proto-tusks would interfere with the existing defence method (swimming very fast). On top of this, there may be other risks associated with proto-tusks: they might be more likely to break than normal teeth, putting the seal at greater risk of infection; they might interfere with normal eating; they take more energy to produce than normal teeth, energy that could be put to other uses.

So, it is fine to ask 'why not?': a lot of progress is made by considering 'why not?'. 86.142.224.71 (talk) 16:45, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There are two answers here - both have an influence:

The problem is that things like venom protection requires energy to grow and maintain - in times of famine, animals that have only what they need to survive will out-compete animals that have all of these rarely-useful but energy-consuming adaptations.

Evolved features don't just stay there when they aren't being actively used. If some species evolves venom protection - but isn't gaining much of a benefit from it, then random mutations that result in that venom protection becoming weaker would not be selected against...the amount of protection would then gradually decrease just from random changes. This reversal of adaptation is actually a surprisingly fast process because mutations that destroy some adaptation are vastly more likely than adaptations that produce benefit. It's like if you took a large hammer and started smashing bits in the engine compartment of your car...what are the odds that a particular random hammer blow will improve the performance of your car? Almost (but not quite) zero. Almost all hammer blows will make the car worse. However, if you never drove your car at night, hammer blows that smashed headlamps or broke the wiring to the headlamps or the switches that turned them on and off would be neither beneficial nor any immediate loss to you. Hence, suppose some species of mouse had venom immunity - it would pretty soon get random mutations in some individuals that would destroy or reduce that ability. In an environment where poisonous snakes were everywhere - the mice without the genes for venom immunity - or with weakened immunity - would be eliminated from the gene pool pretty quickly - so the survivors would all retain that protection - and their offspring would remain venom-protected. But if there are no venomous snakes around, then there is no such corrective mechanism. A mouse with a genetic mutation that wipes our (or reduces) their immunity suffers no disadvantage and can spread it's weakened protection into the next generation. Because destructive mutations so vastly outnumber benefitial ones - any currently useless features can be knocked out without anything preventing the resulting 'defective' animals from reproducing.

For the pinnipeds - you can't just evolve tusks without evolving a stronger skull to absorb the impact - also a more muscular neck perhaps? So this is not necessarily a single, simple adaptation. Perhaps the tougher (larger) skulls prevent efficient live birth out on the ice? Can they still efficiently catch and consume fish with those big tusks out there? Will the lack of streamlining result in them failing to out-swim sharks and then suffering even worse predation? This is a really complex question - and it's by no means obvious that tusks would be an advantage. The answer is very likely that tusks are not a winning option for these animals - or they'd probably have them by now.

SteveBaker (talk) 16:54, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Being resistant to snake venom is only one way to avoid harm from snakes. Another is to avoid them or kill them. Being resistant isn't a perfect strategy, as you're still getting attacked and bitten by snakes.

It might help to look at how it is that mongooses are resistant to snake venom. Most snake venoms, three-finger alpha-neurotoxins, act on the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) to block them, which messes with the prey's neurotransmission. Mongooses and other resistant species have an altered binding site in their nAChRs that doesn't allow the toxin to bind but still allows acetylcholine to bind.[46][47]

If a species doesn't regularly get bitten by snakes due to their absence or having other means to combat snakes, there won't be a selection pressure on the nAChRs to develop resistance to snake venom binding. Mongooses eat snakes and hedgehogs rely on hiding and rolling up rather than running away, so will face snake bites. Snakes also have acetylcholine receptors that are resistant to snake venom, as they also get attacked by snakes! Because acetylcholine receptors have things to do other than avoid binding snake venom, like neurotransmission, there is a balance between doing their normal job and becoming resistant to snake venom.

There's also the issue of evolutionary arms races - snakes that don't have their venom work on their prey won't be as successful as snakes whose venom still works, so snake venom will evolve to avoid resistance and still be effective. The selection pressure on snakes to have effective venom will be greater than on most of their prey to be resistant, as every snake needs to feed but not every prey animal in most species needs to be resistant to snake venom, as they rarely get bitten. Fences&Windows 18:52, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Two questions: swine flu in rodents, and ladybugs in November

Hi. Can the pandemic H1N1 virus infect rodents (esp. squirrels)? Also, how common is it to see a ladybug in November at my location? I'm from Southern Ontario. Thanks. ~A H 1^(TCU) 15:44, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You might want to post such different questions separately. As for the ladybug part, I'd say it's uncommon, but we have had some rather warm weather this November, and I've even seen mosquitos this November, right across the Detroit River from you, here in Michigan. StuRat (talk) 17:44, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Rodents are used in some lab experiments on influenza, e.g. [48], so many flu strains can infect rodents, but the majority of wild mice are resistant to influenza:[49]. There has been one report of a wild mustelid, a stone marten, being infected with H5N1:[50] It's birds, especially aquatic birds, and pigs that are the main animal reservoirs for influenza:[51]. Rodents and squirrels may carry plague, rabies and Hanta virus among other infections. Fences&Windows 18:20, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The reason I ask the question about the squirrel is because I recently saw a dead squirrel on the grass, with no signs of trauma or injury (although its jaws were open). Although I had seen a squirrel as roadkill (that wasn't it) and also a different dead squirrel years before, I was curious to what disease, if any, the squirrel may have had that led to its death. My first thought was H1N1, but that would only be possible if they can contract the virus.

About the ladybugs, I've already seen two today, and perhaps one last evening. It has been a very warm day today considering it's November. Do ladybugs usually move somewhere else when it's cold, and does prolonged warmth in late autumn have an effect on its wintertime distribution? ~A H 1^(TCU) 19:34, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

So the question is really, "What can a squirrel have died of if there is no obvious external trauma?". Not sure. Poisoning is possible.

Ladybirds/Coccinellidae will find somewhere warm to overwinter, like roof spaces, where they go into diapause. Fences&Windows 23:18, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'm in Toronto and I've seen ladybugs in my house a few times in the last couple of weeks, which is unusual. --Anonymous, 05:08, November 9, 2009.

Proteus Syndrome or Brittle Bone disease

This is just my science fiction idea, not a real medical question. Why not replace the entire skeleton of individuals with these disfiguring bone conditions with titanium? Trevor Loughlin 80.0.101.110 (talk) 15:59, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ah -- titanium is great, but it is nonresponsive and non-sensory. Bones may appear to be nothing but "framework," but they are dynamic centers of growth and regulation. Not to mention a tremendous (and perhaps the only) store for calcium when the body needs it for things like nerve and muscle electrical conduction and growth. Titanium cannot replace that. DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 16:08, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Also, the interior of the bones is the place where blood cells are manufactured. Consider the chemical environment that requires - how blood gets into and out of the marrow. SteveBaker (talk) 16:20, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Who needs blood cells? I'll have a rack of titanium ribs with a tall glass of hemolymph? DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 17:55, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The article bone has quite a list of uses for bone - protection and structure aren't the only ones. Vimescarrot (talk) 16:54, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Bones are "alive", not dead, and they play an important role in a number of bodily processes. You can no more just replace your bone with metal than you could your eyes or stomach. --Mr.98 (talk) 18:42, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I was thinking about it, and returned to post another comment. Titanium replacement parts are not entirely fantasty ala X-Men. I cannot speak of joint replacement (for that is not my field, yet it certainly does occur), but as this idea relates to titanium dental implants, they do not work just like teeth do. Teeth are attached to and supported by the alveolar bone via the periodontal ligament fibers, -- basically modified Sharpey's fibers. These allow for a number of things, including proprioception and cushioning of occlusal (biting) forces, things that are absent with implants, which are osseointegrated, essentially ankylosed to the bone into which it is placed (bone fuses to titanium directly). Ask anyone with enough missing teeth that were restored with implants so that they are able to differentiate the feel of biting on the implants from biting on their natural teeth and they will tell you it doesn't feel the same. That's why dental gurus like Gordon Christensen say 'Implants don't replace teeth -- they replace no teeth." DRosenbach ^{(Talk | Contribs)} 19:12, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I do think that full-skeleton replacements probably are via X-Men, though. You do need your bones, even if some of the smaller bits can be replaced. --Mr.98 (talk) 00:03, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I saw a film of a Proteus Syndrome woman with enormous legs, and a Proteus Syndrome small girl with a deformed face, but the rest of their body was unaffected, so there would be room for bone marrow elsewhere. For example, could a complete skull be replaced, bearing in mind that it has only one moving part, the jaw?80.2.205.110 (talk) 10:03, 9 November 2009 (UTC)Trevor Loughlin[reply]

Can alpha-carbon protons (in a carbonyl/ketone) hydrogen bond?

Do they undergo deuterium exchange? Do they form hydrogen bonds? How would you explain why dibenzyl ketone has a much lower MP than benzil? John Riemann Soong (talk) 16:50, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This is just a guess, but maybe benzil's planarity allows much closer packing and so more van der Waals interactions. Dibenzyl ketone has a more awkward 3D shape that probably doesn't allow many VDW forces to form. --Mark PEA (talk) 18:34, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Furthermore, I would speculate that the full conjugation in benzil allows the pi-systems to participate in intermolecular bonding to a much greater extent than in dibenzyl ketone, where there are two sp³-hybridized carbons which break the conjugation, and do not allow intermolecular pi-molecular-orbital interactions as fully. Come to think of it, this is pretty much the exact same thing as the planar/non-planar difference noted by Mark PEA, but from a different perspective. --Jayron32 04:33, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Would be interesting to find X-ray crystal structures of the two solids to see exactly how they pack. DMacks (talk) 06:31, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The crystal structure of benzil has been determined several times, the most recent one I could find was this: Acta Cryst. (1987). B43, 398-405. Benzil is not planar in the solid, the OCCO dihedral angle is about 108°. I couldn't find a structure determination for dibenzyl ketone.

Ben (talk) 16:04, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Calculated Error query

Okay so I have a slight problem, I'm trying to calculate extension error of a Hounsfield Tensometer calibrated too 0.1mm

So i know to calculate extension I'll use the equation 0.01*100 then i have to devide the answer of that by a value, But i've forgotten what value i should use, Should it be the number of measurements up to the elastic limit or the total number of measurements or what? Help please! —Preceding unsigned comment added by 92.18.81.39 (talk) 21:11, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You can buy the article Push-pull fatigue modifications to a Hounsfield tensometer which costs $30. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 22:04, 8 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

November 9

Topical decongestant

Template:RD medadvice Nimur (talk) 00:20, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If you're concerned about an over-the-counter medicine, but don't want to see a doctor, a pharmacist might be able to answer your question. AlmostReadytoFly (talk) 10:56, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Gay-Lussac's law and Degrees of Freedom in Calculating the Final Temperature of a Gas Undergoing Adiabatic Compression

This question is related to serious confusion I've been having regarding conflicts in method of calculating the final temperature of a gas undergoing compression.

Gay-Lussac's law dictates:

P₁T₂=P₂T₁
so
T₂=(P₂T₁)/P₁

But when doing a similar substitution in the work formula for an adiabatic compression you come out with:

T₂=T₁(P₂/P₁)^(y-1/y)
Where y=degrees of freedom.

This causes significant discrepancies in calculating T₂! Help! I don't understand why there is a difference, and which is correct in which situation. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Gothamxi (talk • contribs) 08:39, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Your first expression is based on an assumption that the volume doesn't change. Not much of a compression if you do that. More generally, for an ideal gas:

{P_{i}V_{i} \over T_{i}}={P_{f}V_{f} \over T_{f}}

where the i and f subscripts denote the initial and final states respectively. The adiabatic compression formula is a special case dealing with compression where no net heat is transferred. This is common approximation for a variety of useful situations. Dragons flight (talk) 12:53, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

how do I turn a chloramine back into an amine

Also, are chloramines useful protecting groups for amines? John Riemann Soong (talk) 14:26, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

cyanide...

how fast can cyanide act as a poision???? how can it be detoxified??? who is the inventor of this chemical??? --Lostinscience (talk) 14:35, 9 November 2009 (UTC)rahul[reply]

Cyanide was discovered -- nature invented long before we knew of it. Cyanide is dangerous the way carbon monoxide is -- the carbon is nucleophilic and will bind (covalently) to metal coenzymes in your body, deactivating them. Carbon monoxide deactivates heme (an oxygen transport carrier), while I believe cyanide disables parts of the electron transport chain. John Riemann Soong (talk) 14:50, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You may find our articles on Cyanide#Toxicity and Cyanide poisoning helpful. TenOfAllTrades(talk) 15:22, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

See the articles Gas chamber and Zyklon B (which contains Hydrogen cyanide). Anhydrous ammonia is used to cleanse the chamber after cyanide gas has been used. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 18:43, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If you can keep the person alive (i.e. with pure oxygen), the best cure is the person's liver - most antidotes are almost as toxic. My old Natural Products lecturer always said that "it only takes seventy milligrams of sodium cyanide to be fatal by complexing all the beta-cytochromes in the body" - I'm sure he must have been planning someone's demise, he was always repeating it (and it didn't come up in the exam either!) Ronhjones ^(Talk) 20:02, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Cyanide antidote kits include injections of sodium nitrate, sodium thiosulfate and amyl nitrate inhalants. [52] 10draftsdeep (talk) 15:23, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Source of Neutron star magnetic field

The Sun has a magnetic field because of convection currents in its conducting plasma. What causes the magnetic field of a neutron star? RJFJR (talk) 17:35, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It comes from the stellar magnetic field of the progenitor star. As the star collapses into a neutron star, the total magnetic flux through the surface is conserved, so the magnetic field strength increases as the surface area decreases. -- Coneslayer (talk) 19:19, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

But what keeps it going after that? Is it just like a permanent iron bar magnet with magnetic domains locked in alignment? --Tango (talk) 19:30, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The total magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero... Rckrone (talk) 19:34, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Sorry, that should be "through any portion of the surface", e.g. the hemisphere containing one of the magnetic poles. The argument for this "freezing" of the magnetic field, along with the slow timescale for magnetic field decay (Tango's question) are addressed in Section 3.1 of Origin and evolution of neutron star magnetic fields. -- Coneslayer (talk) 19:51, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Ok, so the magnetic fields is generated by free electrons (presumably near the surface since in the middle they will have been merged with protons to make neutrons) flowing around and they flow around because of the magnetic field? That reminds me of electromagnetic radiation - the electric field and magnetic field generate each other so the combination propagates. --Tango (talk) 20:01, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It seems very similar to the Meissner effect in superconductors: Note that field expulsion (or cancellation) implies infinite conductivity, but that infinite conductivity does not imply field expulsion, because if a material develops only infinite conductivity below its transition temperature, that infinite conductivity will "freeze in" whatever magnetic field was present as the transition temperature was reached. I'm finding articles that predict electron superconductivity in NS crusts, as you say above, but also proton superconductivity in the interior. -- Coneslayer (talk) 14:22, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Evolution

It apparently violates the establishment clause to either ban the teaching of evolution or require the teaching of flaws in evolution. However, would it be legal for a state to, rather than specifically banning evolution, simply remove evolution from the required state curriculum and not include any questions about evolution on their standardized assessments? ----J4\/4 <talk> 18:02, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This actually seems more of a humanities question. You might have better luck at WP:RD/H, as your question is about law. Intelligentsium 18:14, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

My understanding is that this would be held to be unconstitutional in the United States, under Edwards v. Aguillard. Your proposal lacks "a clear secular purpose", and I would argue it "undermines the provision of a comprehensive scientific education," which were fundamental requirements in the ruling for such an act to be nonviolative of the Establishment Clause. Comet Tuttle (talk) 18:52, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Many of what creationists call "Flaws in evolution" are presented to students. They're just not presented in the distorted, blown out of proportion way that you'd get from a anti-evolution tract. They're presented, correctly, as minor details that are still being worked out, points still undergoing debate or research, or as questions that are yet to be answered. It's an important part of good science education to teach that the process is ongoing and that our knowledge is constantly being refined. APL (talk) 19:04, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

AFAIK state legislatures do not write school exams, teachers do. Therefore the state would have to specifically ban teachers from posing evolution questions to make that happen. Cuddlyable3 (talk) 19:43, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

We had this same question not too long ago, I think. It would almost surely fail the Lemon test, as banning evolution would serve no secular purpose. --Mr.98 (talk) 21:23, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Quotes from an Inventor

I need a quotation from an inventor about his/her work. I don't know very many inventors, and I can't find any quotations from any inventor aabout his/her work anywhere. Does anyone here know any? <(^_^)> Pokegeek42 (talk) 21:21, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The most classic quotes are probably to be found at Wikiquote:Thomas Edison. --Mr.98 (talk) 21:26, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Wow. I didn't know there was a Wikiquote. Thanks, that really helps! <(^_^)> Pokegeek42 (talk) 21:34, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Two from one of my favorite inventors, Dr. Edwin Land

Over the years, I have learned that every significant invention has several characteristics. By definition it must be startling, unexpected, and must come into a world that is not prepared for it. If the world were prepared for it, it would not be much of an invention.

Don't do anything that someone else can do. Don't undertake a project unless it is manifestly important and nearly impossible.

-- LarryMac | Talk 22:22, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You can't beat the very greatest:

“

Think.

”

Thomas J. Watson, founder of IBM. Nimur (talk) 23:44, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Was Watson an inventor ? I thought he was basically a salesman. Gandalf61 (talk) 10:32, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Valid nitpick - but the same can be levied against Thomas Edison, or numerous other "managers of inventors" who get the historical credit anyway. Nimur (talk) 15:48, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This one isn't from an inventor, but rather an author, George Bernard Shaw. However, it is about inventors:

"The reasonable man adapts himself to the world; the unreasonable one persists in trying to adapt the world to himself. Therefore, all progress depends upon the unreasonable man."

You might also want to view other similar quotes here: [53]. StuRat (talk) 00:33, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Wikiquote's Category:Inventors is probably your friend. --Tagishsimon (talk) 01:37, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

"The key to success is to risk thinking unconventional thoughts. Convention is the enemy of progress. As long as you've got slightly more perception than the average wrapped loaf, you could invent something" - Trevor Baylis. Gandalf61 (talk) 10:32, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Girls to stop growing

At certain age, people will stop growing in heights. Somebody told me males have grown until 25. is this possible for female to grow at 21?--209.129.85.4 (talk) 21:37, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Certainly possible, though not common. Neither is males growing in height to age 25 common. Googlemeister (talk) 21:50, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Agreed, it is certainly possible, but rare. It is sometimes caused by hormonal/glandular problems that can have other serious effects, so it might be worth talking to a doctor, especially if the person is already unusually tall. --Tango (talk) 22:03, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

human growth, Human development (biology), human height - none of them seem to address this. Did I miss a more relevant article? 75.41.110.200 (talk) 22:11, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

We don't seem to have a relevant article, but if you look at, for example, Robert Wadlow (the tallest man in recorded history), you'll see his height was caused by hypertrophy of the pituitary gland, which caused him to keep growing for his whole life (he died at 22, though). Extreme heights like this can put additional strain on the heart, skeletal system, etc.. --Tango (talk) 22:50, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

WHAAOE. Gigantism and Acromegaly both apply to pituitary growth hormone excess. Not that it has really anything to do with the OP's question, of course. As far as I can tell the question is about normal growth and development. The growth of the long bones is limited by the closure of the growth plates, which occurs toward the end of puberty -- see the section on "differences between male and female puberty" for a discussion of why females usually stop their growth spurt at a younger age than males. With that being said, there's no reason why a girl with delayed onset of puberty might not continue growing longer than her peers, thereby ending up taller. --- Medical geneticist (talk) 00:29, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It depends on your definitions, but a women still growing at age 21 isn't particularly normal. It could just be an extreme of normal development (long tails and all that) or it could be decidedly abnormal. I would rather let a doctor decide which it is than random people on the internet. --Tango (talk) 04:55, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Simple. Modify the biological clock machinery that give rise to these events. I don't know how much we know about the molecular machinery that dictates the onset of machinery and what cues are taken, etc. but it's quite simple to envision an analogue to the per-tim-dbt-clk/cyc sort of circuit you see for the Circadian clock. Mutations in these proteins can trigger abnormally long/short periods so if there's an oscillator regulating growth similar variants in those proteins might be responsible for the distribution of ages seen for a particular stage of development. John Riemann Soong (talk) 22:35, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Such developmental patterns are wildly variable in both genders. For two data points: I reached my full adult height at about age 13. At 5 foot 9 inches in the 8th grade, I was among the tallest in my class. I'm still 5 foot 9 inches tall today, some 20 years later. Noted basketball player David Robinson did not reach his full 7 foot 1 inch height until the age of 21, his senior year at the United States Naval Academy. While the two of us probably represent statistical outliers, there are still some rather larger error bars on the "average age when full adult height is reached" data set. --Jayron32 03:25, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

More anecdotal evidence - my wife had reached her full (normal) adult height by age 13. (She's now well over age 25, so not likely to grow any taller.) Mitch Ames (talk) 03:33, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A man not growing past 13 sounds very unusual, as is being 5'9" at age 13 (it's off the scale on the two online percentile charts/calculators I've checked, so at least top 3% but I think it is more like top 0.1%, the calculators just aren't calibrated at such extremes). A man growing until 21 isn't particularly unusual, though. A women reaching her final height by 13 isn't so unusual. --Tango (talk) 04:52, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

No joke. In the summer after my 8th grade year, I was easily a full head taller than nearly all of my classmates. By the time I graduated high school, many of my male classmates had passed me by. I may have been a tad smaller than 5'9" at the time, i.e. I may have stopped growing in my 14th year rather than during my 13th, but I pretty much remained exactly the same height for ALL 4 years of high school. --Jayron32 06:19, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well, if my estimate (ok, guess) is right and it puts you in the top 0.1% then there are about 2 million men than would have been that tall by that age in the world. It's unusual, sure, but there are a lot of people in the world so unusual things do happen. I guess it isn't surprising that you would stop growing early if you were already that tall - there is far more variation in rate of growth than there is in final height. If you don't mind me asking, did you reach other puberty milestones earlier than your peers as well? --Tango (talk) 17:47, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

magnetics question

Is the magnetic strength of magnets additive if I stack 4 magnets one on top of the other, can I lift something 4x as heavy as a single magnet could? I would suspect not, but then how much heavier? If it helps, you can assume cube shaped magnets. Googlemeister (talk) 22:18, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Correctly computing the force between ferromagnets and a metal surface (like paper-clips) is extremely complicated, and requires both a very nontrivial vector calculus treatment as well as some pretty intense empirical correction factors. You can see some of the simplest approximations that are experimentally useful at Permanent magnet#Calculating the magnetic force. Nimur (talk) 23:49, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For one thing, if you stack the magnets, then all but one of the magnets will now be further away from the object you're trying to move, and this will decrease the load they can carry. If you place them side by side, on the other hand, then I suspect that you would come close to having 4 times the lifting capacity of a single magnet. StuRat (talk) 00:23, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

If you place them side-by-side, with their poles aligned so they all attract the paperclips, the magnets will repel each other. As I mentioned above, the correct treatment requires calculating the effective lines of flux, calculating the induced magnetism in the object that will be attracted; and integrating. Each stage of this treatment requires thorough, 3D solution of Maxwell's equations, accounting for material properties and assuming precise knowledge of the magnetic field inside the ferromagnets. Nimur (talk) 00:54, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Some side by side arrangements are better than others.—eric 01:50, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

So I take it then that treating magnets which are stacked to be akin to batteries wired in series would be incorrect? Googlemeister (talk) 14:58, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That would result in an extraordinarily inaccurate approximation. The level of accuracy of course depends on the particular geometry, the particular magnetic fluxes of each magnet, etc. I am sure that there is some set of approximations and limiting cases where you could arrange some sort of analogy, but keep in mind that magnetic field strength is much more dependent on spatial geometry than electric current that is constrained to remain in a wire. Nimur (talk) 15:51, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

sterics of proteins and interactions between R groups

Is it me or do protein chains look really ... cramped. Is there a polymer stereochemistry for the polyamide bond (e.g. does -NH2 prefer to add below the carbonyl or above?), and besides cysteine disulfide bonds, it seems to me that ring condensation and the like could potentially occur, say between NH2 and COOH R groups, if it was so desired that their amide formation be catalysed? John Riemann Soong (talk) 22:31, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Cysteine dithiol linkages aren't the only inter-amino-acid linkages that occur in proteins, there are lots of other sorts of interactions. There are "hydrophobic interactions", such as between alkenyl side chains (valine, leucine, isoleucine), as well as hydrogen bonding interactions, lewis acid-base interactions, etc. etc. There are a full variety of inter-amino-acid interactions. Pretty much any sort of bonding or interaction or reaction one may find in chemistry can occur in a protein. Such complex interactions are what give a protein its secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure. Sadly, our article on tertiary structure is quite lacking, but a decent biochemistry or molecular biology textbook should have a decent section on the chemistry behind this sort of dense protein folding. --Jayron32 03:58, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes but these appear to be quite "long-range" and based on folding. I was really referring just more of "steric collisions" and covalent ring condensations. (Most of the other interactions are non-covalent...) John Riemann Soong (talk) 12:44, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

What arthropod is this?

I think these are scale insects but I'm not certain. As far as I can tell Wikimedia Commons does not have another image of this species. Can anyone help me narrow down what these little guys are? -Craig Pemberton (talk) 23:42, 9 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For questions like these people usually want to know where geographically the photo was taken, and on what sort of plant the critters are on. --Sean 01:24, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Such people could click on the image to learn "stalk of grass in Flagstaff, Arizona". --Tagishsimon (talk) 01:31, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Aphids? The look to be the right size. There are 10 families and hundreds of genera and species of aphids, but based on the behavior and location (clustered around the stalk of a plant) I would fathom a guess that these are aphids of some sort. --Jayron32 02:32, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Hey I think you're right! =D I never would have guessed but it makes perfect sense. That gets me to Insecta Hemiptera Sternorrhyncha Aphidoidea. I doubt they belong to Anoeciidae because they were not on the roots and I doubt the belong to Pemphigidae because I've never seen a gall on a "monocot". The remaining blue-linked taxon is Aphididae which apparently contains the majority of the species and is a great place for me to start. Thanks Tagishsimon for standing up for me, Jayron for the good eye. -Craig Pemberton (talk) 03:07, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

On a possibly related note, I also ran into this guy which looks a lot like these aphids but is lacking cornicles. Any ideas? -Craig Pemberton (talk) 10:28, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Some type of tree cricket, perhaps the Snowy Tree Cricket [54]? Mikenorton (talk) 11:09, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

November 10

Urinary tract infections messing with the mind

I've known multiple elderly individuals who, when experiencing urinary tract infections, became quite confused and temporarily appeared to have dementia while fighting the infection. Their doctors don't generally seem to be surprised or alarmed by the mental issues, so I assume that this is a common symptom of such an infection. Why does this happen? I can't quite see why an infection of the lower body would so mess with the mind. Nyttend (talk) 03:41, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Without wanting to delve into medical advice, infections lead to fever and high fevers can lead to temporary impared cognitive ability such as delirium; such problems are likely magnified in the elderly. Many people have had a bad flu at sometime in their lives, and can attest to some level of cognitive imparement during especially bad fevers. I suspect, though could not say for certain, that this is what is going on. --Jayron32 03:51, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I can also see the reverse happening, that dementia might cause urinary infections, especially in females, due to poor hygiene. StuRat (talk) 04:30, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Just to pile on the WP:OR, I've observed itcorrelation of UTI and temporary symptoms of dementia/delirium' in both males and females. DMacks (talk) 04:54, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Fever induced delirium or dementia induced urinary tract infections? If the latter, how do you know the cause? --Tango (talk) 04:56, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Sorry for vague antecedent. Fixed. DMacks (talk) 05:09, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Acute worsening of mental status (a change from mild dementia to frank delirium) is frequently associated with infections of all kinds. UTIs seem to be a particularly frequent cause in the elderly (possibly for reasons stated above). From delirium:

"...there is an interaction between acute and chronic symptoms of brain dysfunction; delirious states are more easily produced in people already suffering with underlying chronic brain dysfunction. A very common cause of delirium in elderly people is a urinary tract infection, which is easily treatable with antibiotics, reversing the delirium."

The typical pattern seems to be: dementia --> UTI --> fever --> delirium --> antibiotics --> resolution. However, you don't necessarily need dementia for the pattern to start. --- Medical geneticist (talk) 13:37, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The obvious way to break the link of dementia causing UTIs is proper care. If the patient defecates in their pants, it should be immediately detected and cleaned up, using a disinfectant, so there's no opportunity for the UTI to develop. StuRat (talk) 13:52, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think the doctor would have minimal concerns about the person's mental state because he knows (as do most experienced care staff) that once the infection is dealt with the chances are very high that the person's mind-state will return to normal. Just because the seat of the infection is in the urinary tract does not mean that the associated toxaemia will not spread through the body and affect other parts - like, for instance an already partly disabled brain. If the person has a temperature this will further compromise the oxygenataion of the struggling brain with consequent mental confusion.

Cleaning the soiled area after faecal incontinence is a help, but many urinary infections are caused by lack of proper hydration and infrequent voiding of the concentrated urine. Dehydration is a major problem in people with dementia (and other mentally incapacitating conditions) in hospitals or nursing homes. It is not unknown for care staff to be less free than necessary with liquids to avoid the urinary consequences. Caesar's Daddy (talk) 14:54, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

OR I've had elderly relatives admitted to hospital with dementia, and the UTI was not diagnosed until after discussion with the carers. The conversation would go somethign like this: "Your mother/ mother-in-law's been admitted to hospital. Can you tell me if she's confused normally?" When I said she wasn't, then she'd immediately be started on antibiotics and her urine tested for an infection. This has happened to me about 3 times, and I still can't understand why confused elderly people aren't routinely tested for UTI's as a direct cause of confusion. On all 3 occasions, the patient had had no problem with incontinence, either urinary or faecal, nor had she had problems with dehydration, as she had up until that time been caring for herself at home. There must be some research on this as the first instance I'm talking about happened about 15 years ago: however, I'm no longer able to access the relevant medical libraries to confirm this.--TammyMoet (talk) 16:23, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Port transportation and inventory cost with lead time consideration

Can Wikipedia help in finding journal papers relevant to Port and Modal Elasticity study by Robert C Leachman? The link for this paper is: http://www.metrans.org/nuf/documents/Leachman.pdf

Since I am new to finding relevant journal papers, I have difficulty relating papers. Few example papers and other suggestions for relating and searching relevant journal papers will be appreciated. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 113.10.121.178 (talk) 06:24, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

There are others, but Google Scholar springs to mind as a search engine which focuses on academic journals. --Jayron32 06:34, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

For example, typing "Port and Modale Elasticity" into Google Scholar returned this search. I have no idea how helpful this one search is, but you may be able to play around with the search terms and find what you are looking for. --Jayron32 06:36, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Blood Donation and Alcohol Consumption

I need an urgent advice. Somebody asked me to donate blood. Even as they asked I was sipping a sixty ml of White Rum. Nothing more than that. Not a drop yesterday. In other words only sixty ml in 48 hours. Will the docs rule me out? What complications can occur if I hide the fact? Urgent information sought. --117.204.82.26 (talk) 07:11, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

We definitely can't provide medical advice here (especially since it could potentially affect your health as well as X unknown others who receive your donation). But also, the exact qualifications vary from place to place. Best to call the donor center and ask...you can usually do that anonymously. I won't get on my soapbox and tell you what I think about doing something that you suspect may put someone else at risk. DMacks (talk) 07:32, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You will find lots of information here, including a long list of restrictions on who can give blood. Interestingly, alcohol doesn't seem to be mentioned, so presumably it is not a big deal for them.--Shantavira|^{feed me} 09:39, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

That would be because only a small portion of the donated blood will end up in any individual patient, meaning that the alcohol will be well diluted. Still, if you were dangerously drunk, I'd expect that the amount of alcohol the patient receives might be enough to feel some minor intoxication effects. If you were so obviously drunk, then they might refuse the donation just because of the risk of you injuring yourself or others during the donation process. StuRat (talk) 13:46, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I have donated blood a number of times, and they asked me extensive questions each time. Whether or not I had consumed alcohol was never an issue. To be on the safe side, when you go to donate blood, explicitly say that you just drank X amount Y time ago, and ask if you can still donate blood. — QuantumEleven 13:48, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Donated blood is not blindly dispensed to patients straight from storage after receiving from the donor. Extensive testing is done to determine quality, type and safety: [55] 10draftsdeep (talk) 15:38, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I've also donated blood several times (in the UK) and I don't remember alcohol being mentioned at all. Pretty much everything else you can think of, but not alcohol. --Tango (talk) 16:31, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

From what I've heard of binge drinking in the UK, they might be concerned that blood with too low of an alcohol content would be a shock to the system of the recipient. :-) StuRat (talk) 17:47, 10 November 2009 (UTC) [reply]

Help identifying a bird

File:Ys cover.jpg What kind of bird is depicted in the cover of Joanna Newsom's Ys? Thanks! 189.15.180.169 (talk) 07:34, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It looks like it could be a chough. It is the only corvid I know with a beak and legs of a yellow/orange colour. Caesar's Daddy (talk) 07:53, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Knowing Newsom, there is probably quite a lot of symbolism or possibly wordplay going on here. Sickle, sphinx moth?, Ipomoea, a cherry, the strange perspective which almost seems like it could be an allusion to a work or artistic school (early experiments with perspective?). Maybe the humanities or entertainment reference desks could get you further on these fronts? It's possible that the bird isn't modeled after any species in particular but then again she does pay close attention to her specimens. -Craig Pemberton (talk) 11:00, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Energy stores after exercise

I've looked at many of the relevant articles and I'm sure the answers are there but they get quite technical. After aerobic exercise, glycogen levels are lower than normal. How are they replenished if one doesn't eat afterwards? I believe the energy can come from fat stores or proteins - but is there a mechanism that would perhaps favour one over the other? Thanks, Zain Ebrahim (talk) 11:21, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I believe that energy is normally restored from fat, with protein only being used when this method fails (such as in a person with no fat reserves remaining). StuRat (talk) 13:33, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(Biology) Attraction to super-natural features?

I've spent a while searching for this topic, but I guess I'm using the wrong terms, or framing it badly or something. What's the word for the (sexual?) attraction to features that are exaggerated beyond their natural limits? The classic example I always heard is that human males are more attracted to freakishly red lips (colored with lipstick) than to naturally red lips. I vaguely remember reading about animal studies where they reacted more strongly to an artificial, exaggerated stimulus that the researchers came up with, than to the natural stimulus. Maybe it was rats with artificial sweeteners? I'm not sure. Any idea what I'm talking about? Indeterminate (talk) 11:44, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

This "more is better" attraction also seems common in our diets, where we crave more sugar, salt, and fat than our bodies can actually handle. In this case, the reason is that those items were scarce when we evolved, so the problem of excess quantities was so rare we didn't need a way to deal with it. Similarly, if women with excessively red lips were showing a sign of some common disease, then we might have developed an aversion to them, but this isn't a common problem, so we didn't. A lack of red lip color, on the other hand, could show several health problems, such as anemia, which would make such a woman a poor choice for a mate. So, to be safe, the woman with the reddest lips is chosen. StuRat (talk) 13:40, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I think the main reason men have evolved to be attracted by lip appearance is because it's an indicator of fertility. Redness, thickness and eversion of lips peaks in a woman's mid-twenties, when she is most fertile.[56] Red Act (talk) 18:12, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Boob jobs in humans might be a similar phenomenon. Edison (talk) 14:41, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Supernormal Stimuli--Digrpat (talk) 15:21, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, that's the term, and in this case, that which is subject to sexual selection. Imagine Reason (talk) 17:20, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Dissociation

Hi,

The way I understand it, if one dissolves salts in water, then ions dissociate, resulting in a soup of ions. Say, I dissolve some NaCl and $CaCl_{2}$ in water, there appear

Ca^{2+},CaCl^{+},Na^{+},Cl^{-},H^{+},OH^{-},CaOH^{+}

,

right? Is there a study showing relative concentrations of the ions at the equilibrium of reactions like the following?

Ca^{2+}+OH^{-}\rightleftharpoons CaOH^{+}

I am most interested in concentration of ions of valency 2 or higher, like $[Ca^{2+}]$ or $[SO_{3}^{2-}]$ . Is it reasonable to assume that concentrations of these ions are negligible comparing to the ions of valency 1? (Igny (talk) 14:09, 10 November 2009 (UTC))[reply]

Not necessarily. Metal ions of charge 2+ or higher are often quite adept at binding hydroxide, thereby lowering the pH of an aqueous solution. Someone with a good textbook in inorganic chemistry close at hand can probably put some numbers to that. TenOfAllTrades(talk) 15:43, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Mis-information about the "Great Pyramid"

Below is a copy of a letter sent to the History Chanel with specific reference to the Great Pyramid.

I am an engineer that has done research on work within the "Great Pyramid" as part of a National Geographic team. It is high time that someone check the facts on some of the conjecture that is being presented as fact on your programs. For starters, this particular program keeps referring to the "Great Pyramid" the actual pyramid that is depicted and as the center of focus is actually the Pyramid of Khafre It is a MISTAKE, a common one but still it is highly inaccurate. I can also tell you straight out that as an MIT educated engineer that all the claims about everything being in "perfect" alignment and the "perfect" alignment with this or that is a lot of horse hockey. There isn't enough of the pyramid in tact to tell for sure where it is aligned and it is painfully obvious to the trained eye that there are many parts of the stone work that are far from "perfect". It is high time that all this crap cease to be presented as fact by people that I can only guess are as full of horse hockey as the statements they are making. If you are going to present something as "fact" then somebody needs to check what the facts really are. If there is this much mis-information about the Great Pyramid in this program then the rest of the program is highly suspect. I love Si-Fi but you are suppose to be the "History" channel.

67.142.161.35 (talk) 14:47, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

OK. --Sean 14:53, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Is there a question involved? Googlemeister (talk) 14:56, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I guess linking to The Great Pyramid, Pyramid won't help? Also it's probably not worth noting that The History Channel and Wikipedia are not (at least to my knowledge) part of the same organisation so problems about the accuracy of one isn't going to be resolved by informing the other. Or do you want to know if the comments in the letter are correct? 194.221.133.226 (talk) 15:55, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I'm trying to assume good faith on your part, but you may want to exercise caution with regard to misrepresenting your credentials. MIT has an extremely high standard for its students' English and writing skills; you are doing no justice to your institution when you write malformed and angry letters to the general public that are replete with spelling errors and poor grammar. If it turns out that you are not actually from MIT, they will likely track you down - they have had a lot of recent bad publicity with respect to misrepresented credentials. Nimur (talk) 16:00, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

The OP only says they are MIT educated, not an MIT graduate, so they haven't,strictly speaking, claimed any real credentials. --Tango (talk) 16:37, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

As for your actual claims, while much of the surface stone has been removed from the pyramids, they are still substantially intact, unlike the earlier mud brick pyramids that are now in total ruins. So, by measuring the alignment of the interior blocks, one could determine what, if anything, they are aligned with. The claim I'm familiar with is that they aren't aligned with the north star of today, but rather with it's position when they were built. I do tend to agree with you that The History Channel, The Discovery Channel, The Biography Channel, and even PBS, often do a poor job of reporting facts, being more interested in entertainment (and the funds this brings in, either through advertising or pledges) than education. Still, you have to grade them on a curve, meaning that anything is better than the crap on the rest of the TV stations. StuRat (talk) 17:11, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Organ donation system in the US

Is it even remotely feasible (outside of movie plots) for a person in the US to be identified as donor-compatible by some genetic characteristics (blood type, DNA fingerprint, Genome sequence, etc.) and as a result be killed so that their organs might come to bear on the transplantation exchange, and end up being given to a designated beneficiary? Following the logic, it would require that the beneficiary of the perpetration be already at the 'top of the list' of compatible recipients to even have a shot at receiving the organ, so a follow up question would be, are these lists very closely guarded as a matter of policy? The final question would be (probably something for the humanities desk), how large of a pool of murder victims could go undetected by investigators (presuming that the beneficiary is not at the top of the list, and multiple compatible people must be killed to increase the probability of success) so as to not reveal the ultimate motive?

I pledge that I am not researching this for any ulterior motive than to explore the possibilities (for a factually correct work of fiction, perhaps.) I would gladly accept any articles related to this topic, in lieu of specific answers. Thanks! --Jmeden2000 (talk) 17:13, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

One flaw in that concept is that the murder victim's organs would mostly be unusable if the body is just left out until somebody happens to find it. Usually organs must be removed shortly after death to be viable, which typically only happens if the person dies in a hospital, although some organs last longer than others. And if piles of murder victims start showing up at the entrance to the organ transplant unit with their donor cards taped to their foreheads, somebody might catch on. :-) StuRat (talk) 17:38, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Well in one book I read, the murderer stuck the dead guy in the fridge and tipped off the cops so it was found quickly. That sounds like an option. Googlemeister (talk) 17:40, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In the UK, deaths from murder are "unnatural" and reported to the coroner. With murder, the coroner will invariably perform an autopsy. Thus the organs would be unusable for donation. With road traffic accidents, if the death occurs in hospital (usually the intensive care unit), the organs may be salvaged for donation, as long as the cause of death is clear. Axl ¤ [Talk] 18:07, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Here is a comment about the situation in NSW Australia. Axl ¤ [Talk] 18:16, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(Edit Conflict)There are persistent rumours that, in various parts of the world, "involuntary donors" are identified, abducted, murdered and the required organ(s) harvested on commission from rich and unscrupulous transplant requirees. Only a couple or so criminal/suborned individuals within the medical establishment carrying out the transplant (probably including one of the surgeons and someone involved in the donation documentation process) would be sufficient to bring this off. Since, like the rest of the world, the US has its share of unscrupulous or subornable individuals the scenario must be at least possible. Such a conspiracy would easily be able to dispose of the victim's remains without detection. Since so many people go missing annually, and since there need be absolutely no connection between victim and perpetrators, a low level of such activity might well go undetected for at least a while - my own opinion, FWIW, is that it probably does. The concept has been treated fictionally by the Science Fiction writer Larry Niven (who coined the term "organlegging" to describe it), medical techno-thriller writer Robin Cook (I believe), and doubtless others. 87.81.230.195 (talk) 18:25, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

blood type

Do other mammals have blood types in the same manner as the human ABO +/- ? Googlemeister (talk) 17:39, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Naturally, we have an article. From the point of view of pure biology, humans are just another mammal, so it's not surprising that they are like mammals in this respect as well as almost all others. 87.81.230.195 (talk) 18:03, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

(EC) We live in hope that this is covered at Blood type (non-human). One imagines that Rhesus monkeys, in particular, would be most pissed off to find that they did not. --Tagishsimon (talk) 18:09, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

While the Rhesus antigen was discovered in Rhesus monkeys that doesn't necessarily mean they have it as a blood type. It is only a blood type if some Rhesus monkeys have it and some don't, otherwise it is just an antigen like any other. (At least, that is now I understand the term "blood type".) Are there any Rh- Rhesus monkeys? (Our articles don't seem to say.) --Tango (talk) 18:24, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]

SPC wants you

an any one help me with a mathematical relation between nose radius and feed of a SinglePoint Cutting tool.

Science and Technology?

What is the relationship between technology and science? Are technology and science the same? <(^_^)> Pokegeek42 (talk) 19:00, 10 November 2009 (UTC)[reply]