Talk:Buchholz psi functions

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Non-unique normal form

According to the definition in the article, both $\psi _{0}(\psi _{1}(0))$ and $\psi _{0}(\psi _{0}(\psi _{1}(0)))$ are in normal form, while they both are equal to $\zeta _{0}=\varphi _{2}(0)$ . This is obviously wrong, the normal form should be unique. Janek37 (talk) 20:22, 12 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]