Talk:Singular function

This statement about it's properties doesn't seem to make any sense to me: "there exists a set N of measure 0 such that for all x outside of N the derivative f ′(x) exists and is zero." Does this just contain grammatical errors and lack of meaningful punctuations, or am I missing something? --MattWatt 23:23, 7 November 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Seems grammatical and perfectly clear to me. And phrased just the way I would expect something like that to be phrased, quite prosaically. Specifically where do you have a problem with it? Michael Hardy 23:25, 7 November 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Let's try it more long-windedly:

There is a certain subset N of the domain of f with the following properties:

The measure of N is 0,
If x is any number in the domain of f and x is not in N, then f ′(x) = 0.

Michael Hardy 23:29, 7 November 2006 (UTC)[reply]

I can't keep up with your quick responses! I had typed the following, but it didn't seem to stick from your changes. Hmmm "N of measure 0" is what I mostly not understanding. I thought there may be a better way of stating this property that may be clearer. I'll study it a bit more and perhaps it will begin to become clearer. Also, don't these two properties; "f(x) is nondecreasing on [a, b]" and "f(a) < f(b)" mean the same thing? Do they really need seperate bullets? This is the first time I've ever heard of this topic. I wouldn't want to overstep my bounds and make changes on something that I perceive is wrong. --MattWatt 23:38, 7 November 2006 (UTC)[reply]