Talk:Singular function

This statement about it's properties doesn't seem to make any sense to me: "there exists a set N of measure 0 such that for all x outside of N the derivative f ′(x) exists and is zero." Does this just contain grammatical errors and lack of meaningful punctuations, or am I missing something? --MattWatt 23:23, 7 November 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Seems grammatical and perfectly clear to me. And phrased just the way I would expect something like that to be phrased, quite prosaically. Specifically where do you have a problem with it? Michael Hardy 23:25, 7 November 2006 (UTC)[reply]