Talk:Lateralization of brain function

A lot of work is needed to improve this article

This is the second paragraph of the article:

"Lateralization of brain structures is based on general trends expressed in healthy patients; however, there are numerous counterexamples to each generalization. Each human’s brain develops differently leading to unique lateralization in individuals. This is different from specialization as lateralization refers only to the function of one structure divided between two hemispheres. Specialization is much easier to observe as a trend since it has a stronger anthropological history. The best example of an established lateralization is that of Broca's and Wernicke's areas where both are often found exclusively on the left hemisphere. These areas frequently correspond to handedness however, meaning the localization of these areas is regularly found on the hemisphere corresponding to the dominant hand (anatomically on the opposite side). Function lateralization such as semantics, intonation, accentuation, prosody, etc. has since been called into question and largely been found to have a neuronal basis in both hemispheres. Another example is that each hemisphere in the brain tends to represent one side of the body. In the cerebellum this is the same bodyside, but in the forebrain this is predominantly the contralateral side."

I find this to be completely impossible to understand.

In the phrase "there are numerous counterexamples to each generalization": Which generalization does this refer to? Nobody knows.

In the sentence "Each human’s brain develops differently leading to unique lateralization in individuals": Is this saying that all lateralizations are idiosyncratic? Really? So there are no generalizations that apply to almost all individuals, or at least almost all right-handed individuals? The article should be clear about what it is saying.

In the sentence "This is different from specialization as lateralization refers only to the function of one structure divided between two hemispheres": And "specialization means what?

In the sentence "Function lateralization such as semantics, intonation, accentuation, prosody, etc. has since been called into question and largely been found to have a neuronal basis in both hemispheres." But the first sentence of the entire article states: "The lateralization of brain function is the tendency for some neural functions or cognitive processes to be more dominant in one hemisphere than the other." This requires only greater dominance in one hemisphere than the other. So the phrase "largely been found to have a neuronal basis in both hemispheres" is irrelevant to refuting lateralization, since nothing is said about dominance one way or the other.

The last two sentences are: "Another example is that each hemisphere in the brain tends to represent one side of the body. In the cerebellum this is the same bodyside, but in the forebrain this is predominantly the contralateral side." The second sentence is an example of where the first sentence is false. Why???

Having just read this page for the first time, I agree that a lot of improvement is needed. The very first sentence of the first section (after the lede) starts "For example,...". It's not at all clear what this is an example of - is it following on from the a previous statement made in the lede? I could have a stab at trying to restructure the article, and probably simplify the language for the benefit of lay readers, but I am not a subject matter expert. Is there anyone watching this page who would be prepared to assist and help me if I go wrong?Girth Summit (talk) 16:24, 4 June 2018 (UTC)

@Girth Summit I can keep an eye out. Kudos for volunteering. --Tom (LT) (talk) 09:02, 5 June 2018 (UTC)

Thanks for the offer Tom. I'll find some time to start working on it soon I hope...Girth Summit (talk) 08:00, 6 June 2018 (UTC)

I see you've already started making some improvements! Looks better already, your reordering makes it flow better. Quick question on the opening sentence - it currently says that the 'neural functions or cognitive processes are specialized to one side of the brain...'. Is this common usage in the field? In normal usage we'd say that a thing is specializing in a particular function, rather than the function specializing 'to' the thing. Also, I can't find any examples of the verb 'specialize' being used like this (with the preposition 'to') - you would normally specialize in, specialize at, or specialize for something. I don't want to change it if this is common usage in the field which I'm unfamiliar with, but I'd probably reword to something like:

The lateralization of brain function is the tendency one or other side of the brain to specialize in particular neural functions or cognitive processes.

What do you think? (I promise not to consult you about every single sentence in future - but since this is the opening sentence, I thought I'd better test the waters first...)Girth Summit (talk) 17:13, 7 June 2018 (UTC)

Yikes - I think I'm getting in over my head. I've just done some work on the 'Language' section, trying to remove unsourced and off-topic material and clear up the language. That section seemed to make it clear that speech production was predominantly left-lateralised. Moving on, I started reading through the 'Hemisphere damage' section, which talks almost exclusively about how damage to the right hemisphere affects speech production. The apparent contradiction will be confusing to the general reader and, assuming it's accurate, really ought to be contextualised; however, the 'Hemisphere damage' is entirely unsourced. I don't want to just cut out an entire section despite the lack of source, but I don't feel qualified to research the discrepancy and reword. What's your background Tom - do you know the subject matter well enough to discuss?Girth Summit (talk) 18:47, 7 June 2018 (UTC)