Talk:Lagrange inversion theorem
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What about this:
∞ dn-1 / (w - a)n \ | (z - b)n g(z) = a + ∑ ------ | ----------- | | -------- n=1 (dw)n-1 \ (f(w) - b)n / | n! | w=a
--Edmund 02:23 Feb 22, 2003 (UTC)
The d is typically italicised. The TeX is not correct. The formula says: differentiate the stuff in the parentheses n-1 times with respect to w, then plug in w=a, then multiply the whole enchilada with (z-b)^n/n!. AxelBoldt 01:12 Feb 22, 2003 (UTC)