Talk:Pollard's p − 1 algorithm

a^(p-1) = 1 mod (p) for a in U*(Z/nZ) is meaningless and is not the correct statement of fermat's little theorem.

I don't think you really understand the meaning of the notation. For starters mod is an equivalence relation on Z and

a^(p-1) = 1 mod (p) means

[a^(p-1) -1] / p = 0

But when you say that a is in U*(Z/nZ) then what does it mean to divide an element of U*(Z/nZ) by the integer p?

Fermat's little theorem does say that for all a!

a^(p-1) = 1 mod (p)

I don't know what you're trying to say ,but it's not fermat's little theorem and it's mathematically ungramatical.