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Talk:Minkowski's question-mark function

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This is an old revision of this page, as edited by AxelBoldt (talk | contribs) at 03:52, 29 March 2006 (Question). The present address (URL) is a permanent link to this revision, which may differ significantly from the current revision.

Just a comment, this has to be the worst example of bad choice of notation...what was he thinking?? Revolver 07:06, 21 May 2005 (UTC)[reply]

Dates back to the dawn of the discovery of pathological functions, at the turn of the 20th century. Maybe it was felt to be very confusing? And maybe he had a twisted sense of humour. linas 00:36, 22 May 2005 (UTC)[reply]
Why is ? any crazier than ! (asks one who shorthands sin and cos with $ and ¢)? Kwantus 2005 June 29 17:52 (UTC)
Worse yet, it conflicts with a much more useful notation, d?k for the binomial coefficient d!/(dk)!k!, generalizing to ?⟨i0,…,in⟩ for the multinomial coefficient of a multi-index. Without regard for degree we can write
as the general term of a multinomial expansion, where the multi-index exponent, as usual, means
,
and
equals the degree. Ah well; there's little chance of confusion. --KSmrqT 20:53, 2005 August 31 (UTC)

Question

The fractal and self-similar nature of the function is unclear. Exactly how does the modular group describe the self-similarity? AxelBoldt 03:52, 29 March 2006 (UTC)[reply]