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Talk:Meromorphic function

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This is an old revision of this page, as edited by Oleg Alexandrov (talk | contribs) at 17:28, 11 August 2005 (reply to anon). The present address (URL) is a permanent link to this revision, which may differ significantly from the current revision.

must the set of poles be finite? -- Tarquin

Nope. 1/sin(z) is meromorphic. AxelBoldt

how big can the set of poles be

I don't think I completely understand the definition.

Can there be an infinite amount of poles? And if so, do they have to be countable? --anon

Yes, they can be an infinite set. Hopefully my rewrite shows that.

They really do have to be isolated? --anon Yes, by definition. If they are not isolated, it is impossible to prove that a meromorphic function is a ratio of two holomorphic functions. Oleg Alexandrov 17:28, 11 August 2005 (UTC)[reply]

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