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This is an old revision of this page, as edited by IMSoP (talk | contribs) at 20:56, 2 March 2005 (link to archive, and respond to question). The present address (URL) is a permanent link to this revision, which may differ significantly from the current revision.

See /archive 1 for old discussion (which was previously at Talk:Palladium operating system)

Trademark law fallacy

Correct me im I'm wrong, please.

From the opening paragraph:Microsoft claimed it was because a book publisher of the same name wouldn't allow them to use "Palladium" -- my understanding of trademark law is that if the trademark is for two products from different industry categories, that is in different trademark categories (in this case IT and print-publishing), then its perfectly legal; but my understanding comes from the OSI's claim, not from a formal law text.

So can anybody confirm wether my understanding is correct or not? --Lemi4 18:08, 1 Jan 2005 (UTC)

That's certainly the way trademarks work, but there's always some interpretation involved - for instance, [I think] the browser now known as Firefox was said to be infringing the trademark of a BIOS maker because they were called "Phoenix" and had a product called a "browser"; I'm not sure what it was, but it certainly wasn't a web browser. - IMSoP 20:56, 2 Mar 2005 (UTC)