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Why step from general (nonlinear) to particular (linear) minimization problem?

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It seems to me that in the formal definition section, the author(s) has/have made a particularization step from the thitherto more general and unspecified (nonlinear) (cost-)function f(x) to the more particular linear cost function . Was that intentional? If so, please explain.Redav (talk) 00:33, 14 May 2020 (UTC)[reply]